V-22. John 1:1 THE WORD WAS GOD! There has been much confusion and controversy among Christians as to what this verse in John chapter one and verse one actually means. Now the purpose of this study is NOT to be DOGMATIC with WHICH interpretation or which TRANSLATION of this verse is the exact precise meaning of the phrase “the Word was God” in the King James Version of the Bible because there are several interpretations. And each “interpretation” is clearly seen to be the logically and only true interpretation to the Christians who hold to that “particular” interpretation. In other words, one particular interpretation may sound logical to some Christians and very easy to believe. But then, that same interpretation makes no sense whatsoever to other Christians, and thus, it is very hard for them to accept and believe. And that is why John 1:1 is such a highly controversial verse of Scripture. So then, whatever interpretation brings YOU peace of mind having no struggles with contradicting other verses of Scripture then that is what is desired from this study in God's word UNTIL the Holy Spirit HIMSELF moves you to where He is leading YOU. In other words, until you see what the Holy Spirit is teaching you, you will be tossed to and fro by every wind of doctrine UNTIL you see what John 1:1 truly means in the LIGHT of the WHOLE word of Almighty God for yourself directly from God's word through the eyes of the Holy Spirit who INSPIRED John to write the book of John or the gospel of John. So I myself am not going to dogmatically demand that you must believe all that I teach. But rather, I will simply explain to my readers WHY I myself cannot accept many of the interpretations of who Jesus is that are in the church today. For example, the Jehovah's Witnesses interpret John 1:1 as Almighty God creating a divine eternal Spirit being named the Word as his very first creation. And then, the created Spirit being named the Word created everything else that is created. To ME, this INTERPRETATION does NOT agree with the WHOLE word of Almighty God because it CONTRADICTS other parts of God's word. And this is just one of the many different interpretations of John 1:1. I sincerely believe that the Bible itself does not contradict itself, but rather, it is the interpretations being made by some Christians which is what contradicts other parts of God's word. So then, whatever one INTERPRETS a verse to mean then that interpretation must agree will all of God's word. And if it does not agree with the whole word of God then that interpretation is not the correct interpretation that was the writer’s intended meaning of that verse. Also, there are many different TRANSLATIONS of the Bible. And SOME of the many different translations of the Bible, to me, are more correct translations than the King James Version even though I myself prefer the King James Version most of the time. So then, we need to always interpret Scripture in the LIGHT of the WHOLE word of God and even more so when the verses are highly controversial like John 1:1-14. Therefore, I am going to take it slow while explaining everything thoroughly and clearly leaving no doubt to those of you who are truly seeking the truth of the whole word of God. Lets us begin this study in God's word by reading John 1:1 from the King James Version of the Bible. John 1:1 from the King James Version. “In the beginning was THE Word, and THE Word was with God, and THE Word was God.” Please notice that I emphasized the article “THE” in this verse. Notice that the first article “the” is not capitalized. That is because the English word or article “the” is NOT in the original Greek text. And thus, the first phase should read “In “A” beginning was THE word…” And the word “Word” should NOT be capitalized either. We will get back to this in a moment, but first, I want to skip down to John 1:14 and read it as well from the King James Version. John 1:14 from the King James Version. “And the Word was made FLESH, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.” What does the Bible ITSELF say was made flesh? #1. Does John 1:14 say that God the Son was made flesh? #2. Does John 1:14 say that Jesus was made flesh? #3. Does John 1:14 say that the Son of God was made flesh? #4. Does John 1:14 say that the second person of the Trinity became flesh? #5. Does John 1:14 say that an eternal divine Spirit being, who was WITH God at his SIDE that was named the Word, was made flesh? #6. Does it say that God was made flesh? #7. Does it say that Yahweh became flesh? #8. Does it say that Almighty God became flesh? #9. Does it say that the Father became flesh? #10. Does it say that God the Holy Spirit became flesh? #11. Does it say that the word was made flesh but yet remained the fully Almighty God and a man at the same time having two natures, one divine, and one human? #12. Does it SIMPLY say that the word was made FLESH? WHAT DOES John 1:14 specifically state in simplicity without reading any interpretation into this verse? WHAT does the Bible ITSELF specifically state as a FACT was made flesh in John 1:14? Simply READ what the Bible ITSELF says was made flesh? The Bible itself simply says that the “WORD” was made FLESH! John 1:14. “And the Word (Or in the Greek the “logos”) was made FLESH, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.” So then, WHAT is the logos, or what is the “WORD”? Does the Greek word “LOGOS” translated as the “word” in the entire Bible except for seven times mean that the English word “word” must be capitalized as the “Word”? Or was it capitalize to “sway” Christians to believe that the word is an eternal divine being a person, who is a separate distinct person from THE God. Was the English word “word” capitalized to become the “Word” by biased Trinitarian translators of the Bible? Was the “logos” capitalized to INFLUENCE Christians to believe that the Word is a separate divine Spirit person who was WITH THE God at his SIDE, who ALWAYS WAS THE God? And then that God the Son who was named the Word in eternity past having his OWN will was then sent down from heaven into the earth to manifest himself to become FLESH? But ALSO yet REMAINED fully THE DIVINE ETERNAL Almighty God at the SAME time having TWO natures, one divine, and the other human? This is what both Oneness Pentecostal Christians and Trinitarian Christians theorize or read into John 1:1 with no FACTUAL Scriptural support other than INTERPRETING John 1:1c as being the Word was “THE” God instead of the word was “A” God. In other words, there are no verses in the Bible that state as a FACT that Jesus had TWO natures, one divine, and one human during the days of his flesh from his virgin birth to the cross. Nor does the Bible itself teach us that Almighty God created a Spirit being called the Word who then created everything else. So why was the word “word” capitalized in only seven places with a capital “W” as Word and everywhere else the same exact Greek word “logos” is translated with a lower case “w” as the word? That should raise a red flag to anyone who is honestly seeking to know only God's TRUTH. Check it out for yourself. The Greek word “logos” is translated 4 times in the gospel of John chapter 1. It is capitalized 3 times in John 1:1 as the Word, 1 time as the Word in John 1:14. It is also capitalized 1 time in 1 John 1:1, 1 time in 1 John 5:7 and 1 more time in Revelation 19:13. But yet 200 other times it is translated simply as the “word” with a lower case “w”. And, by the way, the word “logos” SIMPLY means the spoken word, the written word, and the SAYING. In other words, the word of God in every case means God's SPOKEN word, his SPEECH coming forth out from his mouth. So to me, it would be twisting God's word to interpret the spoken word of God as a separate person from God UNTIL AFTER the spoken word of PROPHECY BECAME FLESH at the virgin birth of Jesus. And THEN the spoken word of prophecy was fulfilled and made to become a separate person from God. So, in essence, the word is now no longer the word after the word became what God prophesied His spoken word of prophecy to become. So think about this for a while till it sinks in. The word WAS God, as in, the word was a divine being in eternity past. Or God was the word, as in, the word is PROPHECY, and [A] God was the word prophesied to come into being. To say this another way, the word that God spoke in prophecy was the “word”, “God”. In other words, if John 1:1 would have said “In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and the word was FLESH” then every Christian would know and understand that the “logos” is God’s word of prophecy because they could plainly see that the word was made FLESH. Think about Genesis where God said, “Let there be light and there was light.” In other words, the word that was WITH God in Genesis 1:3 was “LIGHT”. And the word became LIGHT. Not some separate Spirit person named the Word who became light, but rather, the SPOKEN word that came forth out from God’s mouth when God SAID let there be light. And then the literal SPOKEN word of PROPHECY became light. Now think of all the prophecies of Jesus in the Bible everywhere from God’s Messiah being born of a virgin to being exalted and then being CALLED the God of the whole earth. Please read Isaiah 54:5. “For your Maker is your husband; the LORD of hosts is His name, AND your Redeemer the Holy One of Israel; The God of the whole earth SHALL he be CALLED.” The LITERAL translation says the ONES making you, the ONE possessing you. In other words, Yahweh ALONE and by Himself created everything that exists. Yahweh ALONE and by Himself with no one with Him raised us a REDEEMER from among the people. And TOGETHER, Yahweh the creator is creating His NEW creation of righteous people IN His REDEEMER, the Son of MAN, Jesus. And for his reward for suffering and dying on the cross, Yahweh highly exalted the Son of MAN, Jesus to BECOME “A” God to rule FOR Yahweh as the Lord of the Sabbath in the world yet to come. This is what the WHOLE word of God teaches us in SIMPLICITY. Jesus is “A” God whom Yahweh MADE to become a God who is under and subject to his God who alone is the one and only TRUE God, the SOURCE of all other Gods. NOT idol false gods, but rather, lesser Gods that Yahweh Himself SET as mighty ones under Himself to rule over different parts of His creation. Yahweh is THE God OF Gods that He Himself SET to be God to rule parts of His creation. Please read the following verses of Scripture. Deuteronomy 10:17. “For the LORD your God is God of gods, (Or Yahweh your Elohim is the Elohim of the Elohim) and Lord of lords, a great God,(Or a great Elohim) a mighty, and a terrible, which regards not persons, nor takes reward:” Joshua 22:22. “The LORD God of gods, the LORD God of gods, (Or Yahweh El of Elohim the Yahweh El of Elohim meaning the self-existing Elohim is the El of the Elohim. Yahweh ALONE is the HIGHEST Elohim) He knows, and Israel he shall know; if it is in rebellion, or if in transgression against the LORD, (save us not this day,)” The last part of this verse literally means that Israel will know that Yahweh is not saving them because they rebelled against His so great a salvation and that they sinned against Yahweh by crucifying their Messiah in that DAY when Jesus returns. Psalm 136:2. “O give thanks unto the God of gods: (Or give thanks to the Elohim of the Elohim) for his mercy endures forever.” Daniel 2:47. “The king answered unto Daniel, and said, Of a truth, it is that your God is a God of gods, and a Lord of kings, (Or Daniel, your Elohim is an Elohim of Elohim and a master ruler of kings) and a revealer of secrets, seeing you could reveal this secret.” Daniel 11:36. “And the king shall do according to his will, and he shall exalt himself, and magnify himself above every god, (Or every Elohim speaking of the faithful Angels of Yahweh) and shall speak marvelous things against the God of gods, (Or the Elohim of the Elohim) and shall prosper till the indignation be accomplished: for that that is determined shall be done.” The angels of God are called Elohim. Lucifer was once a good Elohim before he allowed pride to enter in and he self-exalted himself to be above the other Elohim and make war with Almighty God to exalt the throne that Yahweh Elohim gave to him to be above the stars of Elohim. The word “stars” is symbolic language referring to the angels of Almighty God that He appointed to positions of ruling authority over different parts of Yahweh’s creation. Please read Isaiah 14:12-14. “HOW are you fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! HOW are you cut down to the ground, which did weaken the nations! (Lucifer was NOT an Elohim up in heaven, but rather, Lucifer was BANNED from traveling back and forth from the earth to heaven. Lucifer LOST the privilege to travel the stars and planets and to visit God’s throne after Lucifer rebelled and made war with God to try and take over God’s throne. For a deeper understanding of Jesus being a God that Yahweh appointed to be the God to replace Lucifer as the God of the whole earth please read the studies under the heading >>>WHY ARE WE HERE-IS GOD AT WAR?<<<) 13. For you have said in your heart, I will ascend into heaven, I will exalt my throne above the stars of God: I will sit also upon the mount of the congregation, in the sides of the north: (Speaking of sitting on Yahweh’s throne in the City of God on the sides of the north) 14. I will ascend above the heights of the CLOUDS; (In other words, Lucifer was once a good Elohim over the earth in a previous age before pride entered in and he thought that he could take Yahweh’s throne to be the God of Gods) I will be like the most-High.” But Lucifer failed and now God is in the process of dethroning Satan to PROMOTE another to replace Lucifer as the God of the whole earth. Please read Psalm 75:6,7.
“For PROMOTION comes neither from the east, nor from the west, nor from the south. (Please notice how clever and wise our God is when He hides the truth in PLAIN SIGHT. The only cardinal direction missing here in this verse is the NORTH. And the word of God teaches us that the city of our God is on the sides of the NORTH. So God is telling us in his word of prophecy that PROMOTION is coming from God) 7. But God is the judge: he PUTS DOWN one, (Speaking of DETHRONING Lucifer now known as Satan) and SETS UP ANOTHER.”
Any guesses as to WHO God has prophesied to be set up as his King of kings and Lord of lords to rule FOR Yahweh as the God of the whole earth in the world to come? You are absolutely correct! God PROMOTED His FIRSTBORN to be His King, HIGHER than the kings of the earth.
Please read Psalm 89:27.
“Also I will make him my firstborn, HIGHER than the kings of the earth.”
Before we look at more Scripture prophesying that his yet coming Messiah would be called the God of the whole earth let us take a look at just some of the questions that I asked God as he was showing me that the doctrine of the Trinity is a FALSE teaching. Here are the five questions that I now ask you to answer for yourself. #1. Who was Jesus BEFORE the Virgin birth when the word was made FLESH? #2. Who was Jesus FROM the Virgin birth to his death on the cross during the days of his FLESH? #3. Who is Jesus NOW AFTER the resurrection, exaltation, and glorification of the Son of man? #4. Who WILL Jesus be during the 1000 year reign of Jesus? #5. Who WILL Jesus be AFTER the 1000 year reign of Jesus? Now, we all agree that Yahweh declared the END from the BEGINNING. And when we look at the END first we can clearly see that the Son of MAN, Jesus was HIGHLY EXALTED after the cross and GLORIFIED by Yahweh to become the King of Israel. Jesus said in John that to this END was he BORN. Jesus knew that the PROPHECIES in the Scriptures spoke of him. And we also know that Yahweh the Father called his Son God in Hebrew 1:8. BUT then we see in the very next verse that Jesus is a God who is under and subject to his God and Father. Then there are many verses of Scripture that clearly teach us that Yahweh the Father is the God OF Jesus. And then, Jesus himself calls the Father his God by saying MY God several different times. So clearly, we can see that the word became FLESH first, and then after the cross, the Son of man was highly exalted by the Father to become Deity or a God under and subject to Yahweh the Father. So then, when we read John 1:1 as a SUMMARY of all the Old Testament PROPHECIES then we can see the END of the prophesied word of God as being “God”. In other words, in a beginning some 6,000 years ago and NOT the beginning in eternity past was the word of prophecy, and the word of prophecy was TOWARD Yahweh, and that word of prophecy was “A” God who will rule FOR Yahweh during Yahweh’s seventh 1000 year long day of REST. And that, to me, is the true sound Biblical meaning of John 1:1. The word of PROPHECY BECAME [a] God AFTER the cross. Simply look at the ORDER of the events as they were PROPHESIED. Please read Isaiah 9:6,7.
“For (Order of event #1 that has already been FULFILLED) unto us, a CHILD is BORN, (THEN comes Order of event #2 that has also already been FULFILLED) unto us a son is given: and (And THEN Order of event #3 is YET FUTURE and it is YET TO BE FULFILLED) the government shall be upon his shoulder: and ( And THEN will come Order of event #4 is YET FUTURE and it is YET TO BE FULFILLED WHEN the government will be set upon the shoulder of Jesus IN the world to come) his name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, (Or more precisely, the Father or the AUTHOR of eternal life, as in, BECAUSE OF Jesus obeying his God and Father Will, Jesus made it possible for whosoever believes in him shall be saved. For you see, the Son of MAN, Jesus, was GIVEN the authority and the power to JUDGE and give eternal life to whomsoever he chooses. This is why Psalms 2 prophesies to kiss the feet of God’s Son whom He ordained to be his King of kings and Lord of lords) The Prince of Peace. (And, according to Revelation 1:5, Jesus is our Prince right now standing at the right hand of God. But at his second coming, Jesus will SIT on the right hand of Yahweh to rule and reign FOR Yahweh as the Lord of the Sabbath. And at that time the kingdoms of this present world will become the kingdom of our Lord Jesus Christ. And) 7. Of the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David, and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with judgment and with justice from henceforth even forever. The zeal of the LORD of hosts will perform this.” There are NO prophecies of a so-called God the Son coming down from heaven to incarnate himself to become flesh. There are NO prophecies of Yahweh manifesting Himself to become flesh. And there are NO Scriptures that even hint of Jesus having two natures at the SAME time during the days of his flesh to be fully Almighty God and fully a human being at the same time. But there are prophecies of a human Son being BORN of a virgin. There are prophecies of Yahweh ANOINTING the Son of MAN. There are prophecies of God BECOMING the Father of His yet unborn Son and the yet unborn Son becoming God’s Son. Please read all the studies under the heading >>>WHO IS JESUS ACCORDING TO THE BIBLE?<<< But for now, let us continue section two of this study on John 1:1 to weigh the evidence of what others INTERPRET John 1:1 to mean to THEM. SECTION TWO OF JOHN 1:1 THE WORD WAS GOD. Some Christians, such as the Jehovah's Witnesses, teach that the Word is a separate person from the Father in eternity past. The JW’s claim that God first created a divine eternal Spirit being who was called the Word before anything else, And they use the phrase, the firstborn of every creation, found in Colossians 1:15. And then they claim that this so-called separate created divine Spirit being named the Word created everything else. And they use verses of Scripture like Colossians 1:15-17 that they INTERPRET as Jesus being the very FIRST born of every creature or the FIRST created being brought into existence by Almighty God in eternity past that God named the Word. And then, that so-called separate distinct and different eternal Spirit being who was with THE Almighty God at his side created all things. Then some other Christians called Trinitarians or Trinity believers teach that the Word is a separate person of a Godhead Trinity God. And Trinitarian Christians insist that the Word always existed as the second person of the Trinity Godhead who was without beginning called God the Son. Trinitarian Christians teach that it was the Word or more precisely in their Trinitarian terms it was God the Son, the second person of the Trinity who created all things. So to simplify things they say that Jesus created all things and since Jesus created all things then that proves that Jesus is Yahweh Himself. But please understand that one must INTERPRET those verses in the New Testament that only SEEM to be saying that Jesus created all things. Every verse of Scripture that seems to be saying that Jesus is the creator can clearly be shown that the worlds were created FOR Jesus or that BECAUSE OF Jesus God’s NEW CREATION of righteous humans was made possible. For you see, the English word “things” is NOT in the original Greek text and those verses should read as the ALL, as in, the all of whosoever BELIEVES in Jesus to be saved. Now, while reading Colossians 1:15-17 out of its context, it may seem to be saying that Jesus, as the word, created all things. But, in truth, this passage of Scripture is speaking of God's NEW creation. Please read the study “WHAT DOES FIRSTBORN OF EVERY CREATURE MEAN?” for all the verses that show us that Jesus became the firstborn of every “NEW” creature of God. And that means the human Jesus became the beginning of or the first of the “NEW” creatures of God' God's NEW creation of righteous people. While we are on this subject let us go ahead and read Colossians 1:15-17 OUT of its CONTEXT. Please read Colossians 1:15-17. “Who is the image of the invisible God, the FIRSTBORN of every creature: 16. For BY him were ALL things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: 17. And he is BEFORE all things, and by him, all things consist.” Now, OUT of its CONTEXT, these three verses SEEM to be saying that Jesus created all THINGS. And thus, Trinitarian Christians say NO, absolutely NOT, no way no how was Jesus created! And Trinitarian Christians also say that the Word was NOT created either but always existed WITH Almighty God and that God Himself created everything BY his Word. To say this another way, Trinitarian Christians have ALSO concluded John 1:1 along with other Scriptures to mean that the Word was a separate divine eternal Spirit person or being who was God and who was WITH God at his side, who created all things. But Trinitarian Christians say that the separate distinct divine eternal Spirit being was called God the Son, who was not a separate “God” like the JW’s teach. But rather, to Trinitarians, Jesus is a separate person of the ONE God who was WITH THE God as being one of the three separate persons who make up the ONE God. So they teach that God the Son became flesh but yet remained fully God and man at the same time having TWO natures, one divine, and one human. Whereas, the JW’s teach that Jesus was fully human during the days of his flesh. And then there are some Unitarian Christians that claim that this separate distinct divine eternal Spirit being was named the Word, whether created or not created was WITH the God in eternity past, but he was not yet God's Son in eternity past. As far as I know, ONLY Trinitarian Christians say that God the Son has always existed without beginning as the second person of the ONE Triune Godhead who is three separate persons in the ONE TRUE God. But let us not forget about the Oneness Pentecostal Christians who teach that there is ONE God in ONE person. And, to THEM, Jesus IS the FATHER. Oneness Christians believe and teach that Yahweh was ALONE and by Himself in eternity past. They believe that Yahweh Himself manifested Himself a BODY to dwell in. And thus, Oneness Christians do not believe that Jesus ever was nor is now a SEPARATE person from Yahweh. They believe that Jesus IS Yahweh Himself, as in, a MANIFESTATION OF Yahweh. So, to THEM, when Yahweh no longer needs Jesus then the manifestation of Jesus will simply cease to exist. And that is why they teach that when we get to heaven we will only see ONE on the throne. But what does the Bible itself teach us? I believe that on this subject as to WHO Jesus is that Biblical Unitarian Christians are the closest to teach what the Bible itself teaches. And the Bible itself simply states that the “LOGOS”, translated as the word, was WITH Almighty God and NOT that the word was with the God at his SIDE. Also, the Bible itself does NOT say that the word was “THE” Almighty God, but rather, John 1:1c plainly states that the word was God. One translation reads “and the word was God.” Another translation reads “and God was the word.” Yet another translation reads “and what God was the word was.” The Jehovah's Witness translation reads “and the word was a god.” We will get into the different translations shortly, but for now, please understand that John 1:1c MUST be INTERPRETED to mean that the Word was “Almighty” God because there is no definite article “the” in the original Greek text. And therefore, John 1:1 could just as easily be interpreted as the word was “A” God. So to me, there is a difference between “and the word was God.” and “and God was the word.” Now, Christians may be thinking, well, is not that saying the same thing? What is the difference between saying “and the word was God” from saying “and the word was THE God”? To us, who speak English, we may see both of these ways as meaning the same thing, but to the Greeks, speaking the Greek language they understood the DIFFERENCE between two DIFFERENT phrases “and the word was God” and “and the word was THE God”. So when John 1:1 is translated as “and God was the word” then it can be seen that the word became a God. But when John 1:1c is translated as “and the Word was God” then it could be interpreted BOTH ways, as in, the word of prophecy became a God or, as in, the word was literally the Almighty God Himself which is how the Oneness Christians interpret John 1:1 and NOT as a SEPARATE person. Without getting into the Greek article THE just yet, let me try and explain how important it is to understand leaving out or adding the article THE in a sentence. For example, let us say you have THE original document of the Declaration of Independence and you have many COPIES of that original document. Now, a copy of THE document is “A” document of the Declaration of Independence, but it is NOT “THE” original document of the Declaration of Independence. So without the definite article, it must be read INTO the verse that the word was THE God and that is why some Christians say NO to Orthodox Christianity and interpret John 1:1 as the word was “A” God. For you see, many Christians know and understand that there can be only ONE God who ALONE is the ALMIGHTY God. And because Jesus is under and subject TO Almighty God the Father then to them and to myself Jesus is ANOTHER God who will rule FOR Yahweh IN the NAME OF Yahweh. With that being said, let us take a look at John 1:1 in the Greek word-for-word translation. The truth of the matter is that if John 1:1 is CORRECTLY interpreted from a correct translation as it is written in the ORIGINAL Greek language, then you will CLEARLY see that there is NO article with the SECOND Greek word “THEOS” as there is with the FIRST Greek word “THEOS”. Also, you will see that there is NO direct article before the word beginning either in Greek. And the original text simply says “In beginning”, as in, “in [A] beginning” some 6,000 years ago and NOT “in the beginning”, as in, in the very beginning in eternity past. This is a very important point but often swept under the rug as being trivial. However, if you are a “gap theory” believer then you will understand that there was more than just ONE beginning. Just briefly God created the world perfect and THEN the earth became void during the war between the fallen angels and God. Then we see a new beginning where God recreates the world and creates a new species of being a little lower or inferior to the angels and tells them to replenish the earth. For a deeper understanding of the subject please read all the studies under the heading >>>WHY ARE WE HERE-IS GOD AT WAR?<<< Keep in mind that there will be yet another new beginning after the 1000 year reign of Jesus. Let me again explain what I mean by this for those of you that may be hearing this for the first time. Suppose I have TWO pencils, but they are DISTINCTLY DIFFERENT pencils, in that, one pencil has a #1 lead in it, and the other pencil has a #2 lead in it. BOTH of them are PENCILS, but yet they are TWO DISTINCTLY DIFFERENT pencils, in that, they are not one and the SELF-SAME pencil. Nor are they the same kind of pencil. Just to look at them they look the same but they are NOT the same. Now if I ask you to please hand me THE pencil that has the #1 lead in it, then I am asking specifically for THE pencil with the #1 lead in it. But if I ask you to hand me A pencil, then either pencil would be correct. And in somewhat the same manner, if John 1:1 were CORRECTLY translated as it is CLEARLY stated in Greek with NO definite article in front of beginning using [a] beginning instead of “the” beginning then that would clear things up. ALSO if the rest of John 1:1 was correcting translated WITH the article on the FIRST word “theos” ONLY and the [a] in front of the second word “theos” then it would read as follows. An HONEST translation of John 1:1. “In [a] beginning was the Word, and the Word was WITH THE GOD, and the Word WAS [a] God.” If John 1;1 was honestly translated in this way then the readers could decide for themselves as to how they INTERPRET John 1:1. Now some will try and argue that I ADDED the word “THE” before the first word “theos” but the truth of the matter is that the translator LEFT OUT the TRANSLATION of this DEFINITE article “THE” because they thought it made better sense to them. Or they were BIAS to the doctrine of the Trinity. And knowing that they could NOT translate the second-word “theos” with the definite article as the word was the God they chose to not have the first “theos” with the definite article “the” either so then both Gods would look like the same God. Why do I say “BIAS”? Well you see, some Bible scholars have clearly shown that the King James Version is one of the most BIAS translations supporting the doctrine of the Trinity. But even so, I myself, still yet prefer the King James Version over any other translation. For to ME, most verses of Scripture in the KJV can be seen or understood in many ways if so be that one is humble to seek the TRUTH of the whole word of God. In other words, when you read from some other translations then some verses can ONLY be interpreted one way. But in the King James Version, I have found that most verses can be interpreted in another way. To me, it does not matter what translation YOU personally choose to study but I would implore you to COMPARE the many different translations of the Bible as well as the LITERAL word-for-word translations before you draw any final conclusions. Always consider the WHOLE matter letting the Bible speak for ITSELF. Let us take a look at what the original Greek actually looks like so you can see how it is actually translated word for word keeping in mind that the Greek word “theos” means God, god, idol god and goddess. Then you can see that it was translated as “God” in English in the King James with a capital “G” but it is NOT mandated to be capitalized from the meaning of the original Greek language. In other words, the Greek word “theos” is simply translated as “god”. The word god is simply a TITLE meaning a mighty one having power and authority. This is WHY the definite article “THE” is so important so that the Greek word “theos” can be known when the writer is speaking of THE GOD as opposed to a LESSER god, who is UNDER THE one TRUE and ONLY ALMIGHTY God. In truth, the Greek word “theos” can mean the one supreme God. It can mean a God that God appointed to be a God to rule for Him. It can mean a rebel god as Satan is called the god of this world. It can mean a false god like an idol. And it can even mean a goddess or a female god. With that being said let us move on to section three where we will get into several different translations of John 1:1. SECTION THREE OF JOHN 1:1 THE WORD WAS GOD. John 1:1 in the original Greek is as follows: en arch hn o logos kai o logos hn pros ton qeon kai qeos hn o logos John 1:1 in the original Greek translated word for word is as follows: “In beginning was THE word and THE word was with THE god and god was THE word.” I only capitalized the definite articles for teaching purposes. Now seeing the Greek words may not have helped very much for some Christians who have not seen the Greek text with English letters, so let me do one word at a time with the Greek in quotation marks and an “equal” “=” sign showing the meaning. In other words, the Greek word “en” equals the English word “in” or “en”=in. In other words, one of the meanings of the Greek word pronounced as “en” means “in” in English. “en”=in “arch”=beginning “hn”=was “o”or “ho”=the “logos”=word or saying “kai”=and “o” or “ho”=the “logos”=word or saying “hn”=was “pros”=with and also means many other things such as towards and within “ton”=the “qeon” or “theon”=god “kai”=and “theos”=god “hn”=was “o” or “ho”=the “logos”=word or saying. Let us put it all together now in the order that it is written in the original Greek text. “In beginning was the word or saying and the word or saying was with or towards the god and god was the word or saying.” Here is another original LITERAL Greek translation of John 1:1 which reads as follows: “In beginning was the SAYING and the SAYING was TOWARD THE God and god was the SAYING.” Again, please notice that there is NO definite article “THE” before the word “BEGINNING”. So, therefore, this verse does not dogmatically mean THE beginning, as in, before all other beginnings, but rather that this was “A” beginning of many different beginnings. In other words, it could mean the very beginning, but it should not be dogmatically demanded that it must mean the very beginning and can only mean the very beginning in eternity past. So to ME, it is dishonest for the translators to have added the definite article “the” without letting the reader KNOW that it was ADDED for clarity according to the opinion or the interpretation of the translator. Also, please notice that the definite article “THE” does, in fact, appear before “LOGOS” which is translated as THE Word, or THE SAYING, or THE DECLARATION of God, as in, THE SPOKEN word of God. And also please pay very close attention to the FACT that the definite article “THE” appears ONLY before the FIRST Greek word “THEOS” which defines the SECOND Greek word “THEOS” to be a DIFFERENT “THEOS” from the first “THEOS”. And in many translations, the translators chose to LEAVE OUT the definite article “the” which IS INDEED IN the original Greek text. So you have to ask yourself WHY? Why did they leave it out? To say this another way, one interpretation or more correctly one TRANSLATION can be that there are TWO different “THEOS” being spoken of in John 1:1 who are SEPARATE from each other. Now, this does NOT mean that there were two Gods in all eternity past. You see, when you understand that God SPEAKS His word first and then His spoken word comes to pass, then you will understand that the spoken word that God spoke in [a] beginning around 6,000 years ago came to pass around 4000 years after God first SPOKE His word of PROPHECY. What God prophesied to come into being was the word “God” as in, a God. Jesus said that the Scriptures spoke of him or testified of him. Yes, Christians have correctly interpreted that THE God which has the definite article “THE” reading THE “THEOS” BUT they have incorrectly concluded that since THE WORD is “THEOS” then the word must, therefore, be THE God. But in truth, the original text teaches us that only ONE “theos” is THE “THEOS” or THE GOD and the other “THEOS” is “A” “theos” or “a” god who is under and subject to THE God. Why am I so positive about this? Well, WHAT came to pass? What is the END of prophecy? Please read Hebrews 1:8,9. I will highlight in orange all the words and pronouns that refer to Almighty God the Father in orange and all the words and pronouns that refer to Jesus the SON OF God in yellow. Hebrews 1:1-9. “God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, 2. Has in these last days spoken unto us by His Son, whom He has appointed heir of all things, (The English word “thing” is NOT in the original text. And since PROPHECY says that Yahweh will GIVE people to His Messiah, then to me, the “ALL” refers to the ALL of whoever BELIEVES in Jesus to be saved will be joint HEIRS with Jesus. But my main point right now is that Yahweh APPOINTED the Son of MAN, Jesus to INHERIT ALL) by (Or FOR) whom ALSO He made the worlds; (So clearly, Yahweh the Father is the CREATOR who created the world yet to come FOR His SON to INHERIT. Now to me, that does NOT sound like a so-called preexisting God the Son, the second person of a so-called Godhead Trinity God who IS Yahweh Himself because the creator already OWNS everything. So then, why would an already Almighty God INHERIT what He Himself CREATED?) 3. Who being the brightness of His glory, and the express image of His person, and upholding all things by the word of His power, (Speaking of upholding the ALL of whosoever BELIEVES by the POWER of Yahweh’s word, the GOSPEL of salvation) when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high; 4. Being MADE so much better than the angels, (Speaking of AFTER the cross and the Son of MAN being GLORIFIED and GIVEN the divine nature of immortality and a NEW NAME) as he has by inheritance OBTAINED a more excellent name than they. 5. For unto which of the angels said He at any time, You are my Son, THIS DAY I have begotten you? And again, I WILL BE to him a Father, and he SHALL BE to me a Son? 6. And again, WHEN He brings in the FIRST BEGOTTEN into the world, He says, And let all the angels of God worship him. 7. And of the angels He says, Who makes His angels spirits, and His ministers a flame of fire. 8. But unto the Son He says, Your throne, O God, is forever and ever: a scepter of righteousness is the scepter of your kingdom. 9. You have loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; THEREFORE (I Almighty) God, EVEN YOUR God, has anointed YOU with the oil of gladness above your fellows.”
Can you not see my dear brothers and sisters in our Lord Jesus Christ, that Yahweh alone created the worlds FOR his yet FUTURE Son? Everything that Jesus is or has was GIVEN TO him by Yahweh his God and Father. So to me, there can indeed be ANOTHER God who is under and subject TO his God and Father just like the Bible teaches. But there can be only ONE God who ALONE and by Himself is the ALMIGHTY God OF Gods. I believe that the WHOLE word of Almighty God AGREES with this interpretation of John 1:1 as a PROPHECY of Yahweh BIRTHING into existence ANOTHER God to rule FOR Yahweh in the world to come to REPLACE Lucifer as the God of the whole earth and NOT the God of the whole universe. To me, this correct TRANSLATION from the original text agrees with every verse of Scripture in the Bible. I myself see John 1:1 as the writer John explaining that the spoken word of PROPHECY came forth out from WITHIN the one true God to be fulfilled to become a God. But BEFORE the spoken word became a God to rule and reign FOR Yahweh in the world to come the spoken word had to become FLESH first in order to fulfill all of prophecy. You see Isaiah 9:6,7 prophecies both the first and second coming of the Messiah. As you read this passage of Scripture, please notice that a CHILD is born FIRST and THEN a Son is GIVEN. Isaiah 9:6,7. “For unto us a child is born, (THEN) unto us a son is given: (Jesus teaches us in John 3:14 and John 8:28 that it was the Son of MAN who was lifted up on the cross and if you read the word of God more closely you will see that Jesus did not become God's eternal Son until AFTER the cross. Please read the study “WHEN DID JESUS BECOME GOD'S ETERNAL SON?” But for now, please know and understand that the ORDER in which this prophecy was prophesied was fulfilled in the ORDER it was prophesied, as in, only the first coming has been fulfilled. In other words, the prophecy does NOT say that Yahweh will send down from heaven God the Son and God the Son will incarnate himself to be born as a God-man. So why COMPLICATE God’s written word of TRUTH with a bunch of man-made church doctrines that do not have ANY Scriptural support?) and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his NAME shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace (In the original Hebrew text, there is NO definite article for any of the names of the Messiah. So it should read, and his name shall be called Wonderful, counselor, mighty God, or might one, father of future or father of everlasting life, and prince of peace. Please see the LITERAL translation. Also, we can clearly see that the Son of man, Jesus, was made perfect by the Father to BECOME the author of everlasting life in Hebrews 5:9 “And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;” So this verse is NOT teaching us that Jesus is the eternal Father, but rather, that the Messiah’s NEW NAME after the cross SHALL BE CALLED the father of everlasting life or the father of the future because God will GIVE Jesus the SAVED people as his CHILDREN. The phrase he shall be CALLED the mighty God simply means that Yahweh GAVE the Son of MAN all power and authority after the cross to be MADE the Lord of lords and the King of kings to rule FOR Yahweh in Yahweh's NAME in the world to come. Jesus was also given the authority and power to raise the dead and give those who believe and obey the words of Jesus eternal life in the world to come) 7. Of the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David, and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with judgment and with justice from henceforth even forever. The zeal of the LORD of hosts will perform this.” Please notice that it is Yahweh Himself who will PERFORM His own spoken word of prophecy that came forth OUT FROM God. Jesus said that he came out from God and, to me, that means that the spoken word of PROPHECY was CONCEIVED in the womb of the Virgin Mary when she BELIEVED the angel Gabriel and she said be it DONE unto me ACCORDING to your WORD. Yahweh hastens or carefully watches over His spoken word to perform it. That is why God knows the end FROM the beginning because God SPOKE the end FROM the beginning and God will perform what he said in His written word to take place. Again, some Christians, including myself, INTERPRET this verse in John 1:1 to mean that THE God AND His very own spoken word that is within Himself is ONE and the SELF-SAME divine eternal God which is Spirit. And those Christians are called Biblical Unitarians. I myself do not take on any denomination names. I simply call myself a Christian. To me, it is NOT a correct interpretation to say that the Word is a separate person who was with God at God's side. Nor is it a correct interpretation to say that the word WITHIN Almighty God was a separate person. The word did not become a SEPARATE person UNTIL the word of PROPHECY was fulfilled at the virgin birth of the CHILD who was named Jesus. The word is a PART of Yahweh just like our own words are a PART of us. To say this another way, the word or saying of God being one with THE God, as in, ONE and the self-same divine eternal Spirit being is NOT reversible where it can be dogmatically demanded that THE WORD IS THE ALMIGHTY God Himself. The WORD is NOT the GODHEAD, or the SUPREME authority, or the HIGHEST God or THE GOD. Let me say this another way to bring absolute clarity to what I am saying. You see my dear brothers and sisters in our Lord Jesus Christ, some Christians INTERPRET John 1:1 to mean that JESUS IS THE Almighty God HIMSELF because of John 1:14, which says that the Word was made FLESH and John 1:1 says that the Word WAS God. And we all KNOW the spoken word that became flesh is speaking of JESUS. And since there is only ONE God then Jesus must be the one true and only Almighty God the Father. Therefore, some Christians known as Oneness Pentecostals or Oneness believers WRONGLY conclude that since the Word was God and the word was made flesh and we know that this FLESH is speaking of JESUS, then Jesus must be God made flesh. And since the Word was God, then some wrongly conclude BACKWARD or in reverse that Jesus was THE Almighty God in the FLESH being fully God and a human being at the SAME time having TWO natures, one divine, and one human. My point is this, when God spoke a tree into existence the tree did not REMAIN the fully divine Almighty God to have a divine nature and the nature of a tree at the same time. So why do some Christians dogmatically demand that when God spoke His word and His spoken word became flesh that the word remained the fully divine Almighty God? And thus, conclude that the Son of man was a God-man who had two natures at the SAME time during the days of his FLESH? There are NO verses in the entire Bible that teach us that the Messiah had two natures at the SAME time during the days of his flesh. John 1:1 states as a FACT that the Word WAS God but that does not PROVE that the writer INTENDED his words to mean that the word was the Almighty God Yahweh Himself. It is only SOME Christians who wrongly conclude that the phrase “and the Word was God” must, without fail, mean that Jesus was Almighty God Himself during the days of his flesh. And those Christians argue that since Jesus WAS God and God never changes, then to THEM John 1:1 must mean, without fail, that Jesus IS THE ONE TRUE and only ALMIGHTY GOD, the FATHER HIMSELF in the flesh. And since they incorrectly interpret Malachi 4 to mean that God never changes His NATURE they dig themselves even deeper in ERROR to wrongly conclude that Jesus must, without fail, had to have been FULLY ALMIGHTY God and fully a man at the SAME time having TWO NATURES, one DIVINE, and one HUMAN, in order to explain how the IMMORTAL God could die on the cross. To say this another way, there are only two different denominational teachings known as the doctrine of ONENESS and the doctrine of the TRINITY that teach the Deity of Jesus BEFORE the cross. Both mainstream church teachings are mainstream church denominations that have been debating who is right and who is wrong throughout the entire church age from the second century to this present day. BOTH the Oneness Christians and the Trinitarian Christians teach a doctrine called the DEITY of Jesus which teaches that Jesus was Almighty God Himself in the FLESH having TWO natures at the SAME time during the day of his FLESH, one divine, and one human. This is also called the “DUAL NATURE” doctrine. But in truth, this so-called two nature doctrine of “hypostatic union” or some other “theological term” was invented by the Roman Catholic Church and made an official dogma in 451 AD at the council of Chalcedon. And to me, BOTH groups of Christians, or BOTH church denominations of the Oneness believers and the Trinitarian believers are actually DENYING the doctrine of CHRIST. For you see, the doctrine of Christ is the teaching of Jesus to the Apostle that the Son of Man Jesus was ANOINTED in the flesh. But both Oneness Christians and Trinitarian Christians teach that the ONLY way that Jesus could have done the miracles he did was if he was God HIMSELF. They have based one FALSE conclusion upon another FALSE ASSUMPTION and they continue to do this until they have formed either the false doctrine of the Trinity or the false doctrine of Oneness, which BOTH doctrines deny the doctrine of CHRIST. By teaching that Jesus is fully Almighty God Himself is to DENY that the Son of MAN, Jesus was ANOINTED with the Holy Spirit and power. The BIBLE ITSELF clearly and plainly warns us NOT to deny that the ANOINTING came in the FLESH of Jesus lest we are ANTI CHRISTS or false teachers against the ANOINTING of God in the FLESH of his SON Jesus. NOWHERE does the Bible ITSELF teach either the doctrine of the Trinity or the doctrine of Oneness. Both the doctrine of Oneness and the doctrine of the Trinity wrongly teach that Jesus, as the Son of MAN, was FULLY Almighty God Himself in the flesh having TWO natures, one DIVINE, and one human. And this doctrine is again called the Deity of Jesus being fully THE God during the days of his flesh. But WHERE are the verses of Scripture that teach us that Jesus had TWO NATURES at the same time, one DIVINE and one human during the days of his FLESH? There are NO such verses of Scripture. But rather, men have incorrectly interpreted some verse of Scripture and they wrongly concluded that Yahweh became a man and REMAINED fully Yahweh at the same time. So always INTERPRET the vague unclear verses in the LIGHT of the clear verses of undeniable statements of FACT with NO interpretation needed to know what the unclear verses are truly saying in the LIGHT of the WHOLE word of Almighty God. Always COMPARE what you have concluded to the REST of God’s word to make sure that your interpretation AGREES with ALL of God's word without having any contradictions. Now, I myself do indeed teach that Jesus is Deity but NOT in the same way that the mainstream churches teach. I teach that there is only ONE Deity who has always been Deity and that Deity is the one true and only Almighty God the Father, the eternal Spirit. The word “Deity” simply means a being having divine nature and according to Peter divine nature is eternal life or immortality. And Jesus was given the divine nature of immortality after the cross and was also given authority and power to rule for Yahweh during the seventh 1000 year day of rest for the Father. I teach that the anointed Son of MAN, Jesus BECAME Deity AFTER the cross. For all the verses and an in-depth study on Jesus becoming Deity after the cross please read the study “WHEN DID JESUS BECOME GOD'S ETERNAL SON?” But for now, let us continue this study on John 1:1. Here again, is the original word for word LITERAL translation from Greek to English where each corresponding Greek word is above the English translation. en arch hn o logos kai o logos hn “In beginning was THE logos and THE logos was pros ton theon kai theos hn o logos with THE god and god was THE logos” Please notice that no Christian has ever had a PROBLEM with the translators ADDING the definite article THE between the words “In” and “beginning” when they translated Greek to the English “In THE beginning...” EVEN when the definite article “THE” is NOT even IN the ORIGINAL text. But when someone tries to be honest with the original text to CORRECTLY translated John 1:1 by simply putting the definite article “THE” in the English translation when it IS in fact IN the ORIGINAL text then they get ACCUSED of adding to the word of God or changing the word of God to fit their own personal interpretation of John 1:1. So be assured dear children of God, and know that I am NOT adding to nor am I changing the word of God, but rather, I am simply showing you, the reader and seeker of the TRUTH, what the ORIGINAL Greek text ACTUALLY says when it is literally translated word for word. Again, please notice that there is NO definite article “THE” before the SECOND Greek word “THEOS” in the phrase “with THE god and god was THE logos.” And also notice that neither word “god” is capitalized in the literal translation. So the only way to know which god is Yahweh Himself, the Greek text has the article “THE”. Now, this particular literal translation does indeed translate the direct article to say “with the god and god was the word.” But the King James Version and many other translations LEAVE OUT the direct article “the” and for me, I have to ask WHY? Are they deliberately trying to INFLUENCE the reader to believe that both Gods are one and the same God? You decide after knowing that 1 John 5:7,8 is also a questionable verse that some Bible Scholars say was ADDED. Also, not that the literal translation says, “...and god was the word.” as opposed to “...and the Word was God.” Again, some Christians may say, well, what is the difference? Let me share something from Genesis 1:3 with you and you will see the difference. Please read genesis 1:3. “And God said, Let there be LIGHT: and there was light.” In Genesis 1:3 LIGHT was the word. To say this another way, in another beginning was the word, and the word was within THE God and LIGHT was the word or the word was LIGHT when God SPOKE the word and said LIGHT be and there was light. This is HOW Yahweh the one true and only Almighty God created all things. THE God SPOKE forth his word of SAYING out from within Himself and whatever the word WAS came into being. In Genesis 1:3 the word WAS LIGHT. And the light came into being where light never existed before. When God created the first tree the word or saying WAS tree. And a tree came into being where a tree never existed before. But the tree did not REMAIN the fully Almighty God having TWO natures. So then, THE God created all things by His SPOKEN word, and without THE God speaking His word nothing was created that was created. In the Old Testament, there was NO God with Yahweh and that is why all of the verses in the Old Testament clearly teach us that there is only ONE God. But Yahweh prophesied that He was going to do NEW THINGS and one of those things was to have a FIRSTBORN SON whom he would highly exalt to become a God to rule FOR him while he rests on the seventh day. I mean WHY would God prophesy that in the future He would have a Son if so be God already had a firstborn Son in eternity past? That makes no sense to me for God to PROPHESY of having a future Son if God's Son came into existence as the firstborn of every creature in eternity past. THINK about this my Jehovah’s Witness Christians. Colossians 1:15 says the firstborn of every CREATURE and a creature is a CREATED being. So how does a CREATED being CREATE everything else? Read the whole CONTEXT and you will see that the firstborn of every creature is speaking of God’s NEW CREATION where Jesus is the FIRST FRUITS unto God. Jesus is the firstborn among many BRETHREN. Jesus is the firstborn from the dead ones, the first HUMAN being to be given the divine nature of immortality. Back to John 1:1. The “logos” is the SPOKEN word of God. It is also translated as the SAYING was TOWARD God. In other words, in [a] beginning around 6,000 years ago was the word or the SAYING which came forth out from the mouth of THE God. But before God spoke His word or His saying out from His mouth the word was WITHIN THE God. And instead of the word or saying of God being LIGHT or a TREE the word or the SAYING was [a] god. This is WHY some translators CORRECTLY argue that since there is NO definite article “THE” before the second God in the phrase “and God was the Word” then the writer is IMPLYING that this is a LESSOR god and NOT THE ONE TRUE and ONLY ALMIGHTY God. Therefore, some translators will ADD the indefinite article “a” in their more correct translation but NOT completely correct translation which read as follows: John 1:1 literally reads. “In [a] beginning was the Word, and the Word was with THE GOD, and the Word was [a] God.” In opposition to this more correct translation, others argue that even if there is NO definite article you just cannot ASSUME that the writer intended for there to be an INDEFINITE article, which would then leave NO DOUBT that the second Greek word “THEOS” is NOT THE ONE TRUE and ONLY ALMIGHTY God. And they are correct when one interprets any verse alone and apart from the rest of God's word then you cannot be sure either way. And, therefore, one MUST ASSUME one way or the other when interpreting John 1:1 alone and apart from the rest of God’s word. So then, let us NOT ASSUME ANYTHING, but RATHER let us COMPARE Scripture with Scripture and see what the word of TRUTH itself CLEARLY and PLAINLY teaches us when we closely consider the WHOLE word of Almighty God. In other words, what does the rest of God's word have to say about this second Greek word “THEOS” in John 1:1? Does the rest of God's word AGREE that this second “THEOS” in John 1:1 is “A” god, as in, another “THEOS”, who is under and subject to THE “THEOS”, the one true and ONLY ALMIGHTY God seeing that there can be only ONE God who is THE ALMIGHTY God? Please read Hebrews 1:8,9 which is ALMIGHTY God the FATHER HIMSELF is speaking these words TO His SON Jesus. Hebrews 1:8,9. “But unto the Son HE (The word HE is referring to THE Almighty God, the FATHER speaking TO His SON Jesus and) says, Your throne, O God, (Or Your throne O “THEOS”, which can be translated as God OR [a] God under and subject to Almighty God the Father. You throne O God) is forever and ever: a scepter of righteousness is the scepter of your kingdom. 9. You have loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore, God, (Referring to THE ONE TRUE and ONLY ALMIGHTY God THE FATHER still yet speaking to his SON Jesus) EVEN YOUR God, has ANOINTED you with the oil of gladness above your fellows.” Can you not see my dear brothers and sisters in our Lord Jesus the CHRIST, the ANOINTED one OF Almighty God the Father, is a God who is UNDER and SUBJECT to HIS God and Father THE ONE TRUE and ONLY ALMIGHTY God. So how can Jesus be THE God, as in, the ONE TRUE and ONLY ALMIGHTY God, when Jesus has THE God OVER him and he is SUBJECT and UNDER HIS God and Father? Therefore, IF one INTERPRETS John 1:1 as the WORD being a SEPARATE and DISTINCT BEING from THE God, and that Jesus HIMSELF PREEXISTED as the SECOND person of the trinity as THE WORD or as God the SON, who is equal with THE God in every way then they are NOT in AGREEMENT with the REST of God's word. For you see, the WHOLE word of God CLEARLY and PLAINLY shows us that Jesus is “A” God, who is UNDER and who is SUBJECT to HIS God and Father, who ALONE is THE ALMIGHTY God. Please remember what I Corinthians 8:6 clearly and plainly teaches us that to us, speaking of true born again believers, which is that there is but ONE GOD. Or more precisely, there is but one ALMIGHTY and most HIGH God, who ALONE is the FATHER, AND to us, there is also ONE LORD, who is Jesus the CHRIST, the ANOINT ONE of Almighty God. This is WHY that, I myself must ask, is THIS INTERPRETATION of a PREEXISTING Jesus AS the eternal divine Son of God, who was WITH the Almighty God, AT Almighty God's side, the CORRECT interpretation based upon the WHOLE word of God? You see some Christians like the Jehovah's Witnesses teach that Jesus preexisted as the FIRSTBORN of every creature, who was called or named the WORD, who was then used by God to create all OTHER things. Then others INTERPRET John 1:1 to mean that Jesus preexisted as God the SON, who was NEVER brought forth into existence, but rather, they say that God the SON has ALWAYS existed WITHOUT beginning who was WITH the Father and that God the SON created all things. And yet others claim that Jesus, the Son, the Word was ONE and the SELF SAME divine eternal ONE God who is NOT a separate person apart from God, but rather a mode of manifestation of God BECOMING His Son, So therefore, to them, Jesus IS the FATHER and the Father IS the SON Jesus as in ONE and the SELF SAME being. But what does the Bible ITSELF teach us closely examining ALL the verses related to this subject of >>> WHO IS JESUS ACCORDING TO THE BIBLE? <<< Is JESUS the ONE God? Is the WORD the ONE God? What does John 1:1 TRULY mean in the LIGHT of the WHOLE word of God? Let us take one step at a time and firm;y draw the CORRECT conclusion at each step of the way so that we will NOT teach error but only the TRUTH of the WHOLE word of God. Here is 1 Corinthians 8:6 again. “But to us, there is but ONE GOD, THE FATHER, of whom are all things, (The English word things is not in the original Greek text. The of who are the ALL is referring to all the NEW creatures created IN Jesus Christ who are IN the Father by being IN His Son, Jesus) and we in Him; AND one LORD Jesus Christ, by (Or more correctly the Greek word dia should be translated as FOR or for the SAKE of) whom are all things, (Again, speaking of the ALL of whosoever believes in Jesus to be created by Yahweh to be new creatures IN Jesus Christ) and we (The new creatures are) by (Or more precisely, we are new creatures BECAUSE OF) him.” Keep in mind that Jesus was MADE Lord BY Yahweh the Father, according to Acts 2:36. So then, with the true understanding that the whole word of God clearly teaches us that the FATHER alone is the one true and ONLY Almighty God AND that Jesus His SON is the ONE Lord then here is how John 1:1 should be translated. John 1:1 correctly translated in my own opinion. “In [a] beginning was the SAYING, and the SAYING was TOWARD THE GOD, and the SAYING was [a] God.” Yes, there are other INTERPRETATIONS and translations of John 1:1. But do those other interpretations and translations AGREE with every other verse of Scripture in the Bible without having any contradictions? To me, they do NOT! All Christians already know the Trinitarian interpretation of John 1:1. Almost all Christians know the Oneness Pentecostal interpretation of John 1:1. Some Christians already know the Jehovah’s Witnesses' interpretation of John 1:1. But have YOU ever heard the sound Biblical interpretation of John 1:1 by “BIBLICAL” Unitarian Christians? Now, God showed me the same interpretation that Biblical Unitarians teach long before I ever heard of Biblical Unitarians. And for many years before I ever heard other Christians who believe as I do, I thought I was the only Christian that believed the Word that was with God was the spoken word that came forth out from the MOUTH of God as PROPHECY. And when I heard a teaching by a Biblical Unitarian Christian I weep with tears of joy knowing that God is showing the same things that He showed me to other Christians. I had no idea that there have always been Biblical Unitarian Christians throughout the entire church age. Obviously, they did not call themselves by the same name as Biblical Unitarian Christians. And from the time I first saw the true Jesus, according to the Bible itself some forty years ago, God has given me more revelation in His word that further confirms that Jesus did NOT preexist in eternity past in any form except for the IMAGE of God’s yet future Messiah in the MIND and PLAN of Almighty God who Yahweh spoke out from His mouth as His own word of PROPHECY. And one such revelation is that the beginning in Genesis chapter 1 and John 1:1 is NOT the beginning in eternity past but rather the restoring of the earth after God destroyed the earth with a flood that some Bible scholars call the Luciferian flood. Please read all the studies under the heading >>>WHY ARE WE HERE-IS GOD AT WAR?<<< And in those studies, you will learn why the gap theory is sound Biblical teaching. And to go a little deeper into the TRUE meaning of John chapter 1, please read the following studies. “WHAT DOES JOHN 1:1 TRULY MEAN?” “WHAT DOES JOHN 1:1-3 TRULY MEAN?” “WHAT DOES JOHN 1:1-5,14 TRULY MEAN?” “WHAT DOES JOHN 1:14 TRULY MEAN?” And even very well known Trinitarian Bible teachers AGREE that the word in John 1:1 is NOT a SEPARATE divine being who was with God. But yet, they STILL hold fast to the doctrine of the Trinity and they continue to USE John 1:1 as one of their proof texts. To me, that is like saying that I am fully aware that John 1:1 does NOT prove that God the Son preexisted in the eternity past, but I am going to use John 1:1 anyway, because most Christians do not KNOW that the word in John 1:1 is NOT God the Son. Take a few minutes and watch this video. Trinitarian Michael Brown Agrees with Unitarians on John 1:1. And then please be sure to come back to continue seeking the TRUTH of the WHOLE word of Almighty God here at AMatterOfTruth.com. Please understand that I am NOT teaching against ANY Christian, but rather, I am teaching against the errors of the INTERPRETATION of the Scriptures. And below there is a list of every study that I have on who is Jesus, according to the Bible ITSELF. I have studies explaining all the verses that are used to TRY and prove that Jesus pre-existed. And I have studies pertaining to all the verses used to TRY and prove the doctrine of the Trinity. And I have studies concerning all the verses that are used by Oneness Pentecostal Christians used to TRY and prove that Jesus is the Father. Thanks for reading and may God bless you richly as you CONTINUE to seek the TRUTH of the WHOLE word of Almighty God. Your Brother in our Lord Jesus Christ, Brother Mark. RETURN TO HOMEPAGE AT
VERSES USED TO TEACH THAT JESUS PREEXISTED! To me, the best way to know the ONE true God in ONE person is to know who Jesus TRULY IS according to the WHOLE word of Almighty God so please read ALL the studies under the heading >>>WHO IS JESUS ACCORDING TO THE BIBLE?<<< and you will see that the Bible itself teaches us that Jesus was CREATED by his God and Father. And if you have any questions related to the correct meaning of certain verses of Scripture on this subject of who Jesus is please read all the studies under the two headings >>>A LIST OF STUDIES ON THE TRINITY!<<< and >>>VERSES USED TO TEACH THAT JESUS PRE-EXISTED!<<< These two headings have ALL the studies that I have on who Jesus truly is according to what the Bible itself teaches us in simplicity. I compiled these three headings to make it easy for my readers to send just one, two, or three links to those you desire to help understand what the Bible itself teaches concerning who Jesus is in the LIGHT of the WHOLE word of Almighty God. Thanks for reading and may God bless you richly as you continue to seek the truth of the whole word of Almighty God.
Your brother in our Lord Jesus Christ, Brother Mark.
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