In order to try and prove the doctrine of the Trinity and the doctrine of the Deity of Jesus during the days of his flesh some Christians use the REASONING that the ONLY WAY for God to be able to SEND His SON, then the SON must have ALREADY EXISTED up in heaven with Almighty God the Father for all eternity. 

Now, Trinitarian Christians need a God the Son that is without a beginning who came DOWN from heaven and incarnated himself to become flesh or their doctrine of the Trinity falls apart. So they MUST interpret all the Scriptures to men that Jesus eternally existed as God the Son. But yet some Unitarian Christians who reject the doctrine of the Trinity like the Jehovah’s Witnesses and the Christadelphian Christians still yet say that God’s Son had his original beginning in the eternity past as the firstborn of every creature. Now, Oneness Pentecostal Christians believe that Jesus had his beginning at the virgin birth but they believe that Jesus is one and the self-same being as the Father, and thus, to them, there is only ONE sitting on the throne whose name is Jesus.

To me, it is only the Biblical Unitarian Christians who are the closest to being sound Biblical in their teaching concerning Jesus being brought into existence at his virgin birth. I also believe that Jesus came into existence at the virgin birth and being fully human without any divine nature. And then after the cross, the human Son of God became God’s eternal Son by INHERITANCE. So I ask the question to you my readers, which group of Christians is teaching the true Jesus according to the Bible? Let us begin this study in God's word by reading Galatians 4:4.

Galatians 4:4.

“But when the FULLNESS of the TIME had come, God SENT FORTH his SON, made of a woman, made under the law,”

This verse here in Galatians 4:4 clearly and plainly teaches us that the SON OF God that was sent forth was MADE of a woman and MADE UNDER the law and NOT that the SON OF God was sent forth from heaven down to the earth TO BE MADE of a woman, made under the law. The FULLNESS of time that had come was at the baptism of Jesus when God SENT FORTH His ANOINTED human Son into the world to preach the coming Kingdom of God.

So then, should Galatians 4:4 be INTERPRETED to mean that God sent forth His Son made of a woman and made under the law down from heaven to incarnate himself to become flesh? No! Absolutely not!

Now, to ME, this verse means that Jesus was ALREADY born of a woman under the law when the fullness of time had come, and THEN, in the FULLNESS of THE TIME when it was time for Jesus to be ANOINTED with the eternal Holy Spirit of Almighty God to be commissioned with power and authority to preach the gospel, then Almighty God SENT FORTH His SON out into the world to do all His Will.

In the fullness of the time when Jesus began to be about 30 years of age, God SENT FORTH his SON Jesus out into the world to PREACH the gospel. And in John 17:16-22 Jesus teaches us that in the same way that God SENT his SON INTO the world Jesus ALSO SENT his disciples INTO the world.

John 17:16-22.

“They (Speaking of the disciples of Jesus and all believers in Jesus) are NOT OF the world, EVEN AS (or in the SAME WAY AS) I am NOT OF the world. (Jesus is NOT of this world does NOT DOGMATICALLY DEMAND that it means that the SON OF God was BORN up IN HEAVEN in eternity past BEFORE the SON was SENT down ONTO the EARTH to be BORN of a woman under the law and THEN SENT OUT INTO the world to preach the gospel. But rather, Jesus said the WE are NOT OF the world in the SAME WAY that Jesus is NOT OF this world. So then, this phrase of not being of this world simply means that we are BORN of God from ABOVE and that we follow and obey the voice from ABOVE. It means that we do not partake of the sinful things OF this world. It means that we as Christians are BORN from ABOVE by the word of the eternal Holy Spirit who DWELT IN Jesus, the SON OF Almighty God,)

17. Sanctify them through Your truth: your word is truth.

18. AS You have SENT me INTO the world, EVEN SO (Or in the SAME WAY the Yo Father have SENT me into the world) have I ALSO SENT them INTO the world. (Can you not see my dear brothers and sisters in our Lord Jesus Christ, that this phrase “SENT INTO the world” does NOT DOGMATICALLY DEMAND that it means being SENT down from heaven ONTO the EARTH. But rather, this phrase simply means being SENT OUT INTO the world. In the fullness of the time, Jesus was sent out into the world to preach the gospel)

19. And for their sake, I sanctify myself, (Or I separate myself from worldly things to not give into sin) that they also might be sanctified through the truth.

20. Neither do I pray for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word;

21. That they ALL may be ONE; AS YOU, Father, are IN me, and I IN You, that they ALSO may be ONE in us: that the world may believe that You have SENT me. (Jesus being ONE with the Father does NOT DOGMATICALLY DEMAND that Jesus is THE ONE TRUE and ONLY ALMIGHTY God as some FALSELY teach. But rather being ONE with the Father simply means that they AGREE as ONE. Their WILLS have merged to be UNITED in AGREEMENT for the SAME purpose) 

22.  And the glory which You GAVE me I have given them; that they may be ONE, EVEN AS (Or in the SAME WAY as) we are ONE:”

The Greek word that is translated in Galatians 4:4 as “SENT FORTH” is a compound word that means God SET APART His Son OUT FROM the world. This word means to dispatch, to send out into the world on a MISSION, and to delegate. And all of the Greek words translated as “SENT” in John chapter 17 mean COMMISSIONED. The word “commission” means to GIVE power and authority to a person to accomplish the task that they are given to do. A police “COMMISSIONER” commissions his police “officers” with power and authority to perform the task of enforcing the law.

Also, please consider that Almighty God was NOT always the Father of Jesus and that Jesus was NOT always his SON of God in the eternity past. But rather, the SON was BEGOTTEN OF Almighty God at some point in TIME, and THEN Almighty God BECAME a Father on a certain DAY that he BEGOT his SON. And Galatians 4:4 is simply another verse of Scripture that confirms WHEN Jesus was begotten. Jesus was born of a woman at his virgin birth and he was born under the law. Another verse of Scripture that teaches us that came into existence at the virgin birth as the human Son of God is Hebrews chapter 1 and chapter 2. I will only quote Hebrews 1:1-14.

Please read Hebrews 1:1-14.

“God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spoke in TIME PAST unto the fathers by the prophets, (In other words, God did NOT speak at ANY time in the OLD Testament BY His SON. Therefore, any CLAIMS that the Angel of the Lord or Michael the archangel or any other angel was the pre-existing Jesus is a FALSE claim, according to this passage of Scripture. Verse 1 here says that in times past God spoke by his PROPHETS and in the next verse, verse 2, we are clearly and plainly told that God in or during these LAST DAYS has spoken to us BY his SON. So then God)

2. Has IN THESE LAST DAYS spoken unto us BY his SON, whom He has APPOINTED HEIR of all things, BY whom also He made the worlds; (Some Christians use this verse to try and prove that Jesus created all things. But the TRUTH of the matter is that Almighty God the Father is the creator of all things and the Almighty God created all things FOR His Son Jesus to INHERIT. You see, the Greek word “DIA” [Strong's Concordance #1223] that is translated as BY also means through, FOR, BECAUSE OF, and FOR the SAKE OF. The root meaning is the CHANNEL of an act. The REASON for why the act was made. The means of, The GROUND or reason by which something is done or not done, By reason of, on account of, because of, for this reason. 

Also, The word “THINGS” is NOT in the original Greek text and the “ALL” is speaking of the ALL of WHOSOEVER believes. So Yahweh created the ALL of us as believers IN Jesus Christ or BY reason of Jesus and Yahweh made the world yet to come FOR his Son to inherit and we are JOINT-HEIRS with Jesus. And the LITERAL translation of this verse in Hebrews 1:2 is as follows “on last one of the days these talks to us in Son whom he places tenant of ALL through whom also eons He MAKES” In other words, this verse is actually speaking about the ages to come that God makes POSSIBLE through His Son Jesus making it possible for us to become eternal sons and daughters of God, and NOT this present world as have been made through a pre-existing God the SON of Almighty God in the eternity past. 

You see the Father has GIVEN all authority and POWER to the highly exalted Son of MAN Jesus to rule and reign over the WORLD TO COME for Yahweh for 1000 years to MAKE all the decisions that need to be made. This is what this verse is speaking of rather than the beginning of all creation in eternity past. We will cover Revelation 3:14 in the next section where Jesus says “I am the BEGINNING of CREATION”. Also please read the studies “WHAT DOES FIRSTBORN OF EVERY CREATURE MEAN?” and  “EPHESIANS 3:9-11- DID JESUS CREATE ALL THINGS?” for SOUND BIBLICAL teaching on who the WHOLE word of God teaches is the creator of all things)

3. Who being the brightness of his glory, and the EXPRESS IMAGE of his PERSON (Jesus, the SON OF God, is the EXPRESS IMAGE of the person of God in the brightness of His GLORY but WHEN was the Son GLORIFIED? WHEN did the Son BECOME the IMAGE OF the invisible God? Was the Son glorified in eternity past, at his virgin birth, or AFTER the cross? Did the Son become God's IMAGE in eternity past? Did Jesus become God’s IMAGE at the virgin birth? Did Jesus become the IMAGE of God AFTER the cross? What does the CONTEXT teach us?), and upholding ALL things by the word of His power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high; (Now, some Christians try and use this verse to try and prove that Jesus as the Word or as God the Son is upholding all things in the entire universe by his OWN word of power. But in truth, the LITERAL Greek is again speaking of the world to come where Jesus is GIVEN all power to rule and reign for 1000 years. Here is the LITERAL translation, “Who being from radiance of the esteem and emblem of the understanding of him CARRYING ON besides the ALL to the declaration of the ability of him through himself cleansing making of the sins of us is seated in right hand of majesty in heights.”As you can see, Jesus if GIVEN POWER to carry on to rule in his Father's kingdom at his Father's right hand. Also, this verse teaches us that Jesus overcame sin through the POWER of the Father. And the ALL is speaking of us as God's NEW CREATION created IN his Son Jesus Christ and Jesus is CONTINUING to make us STAND by the power of Yahweh’s word)

4. Being MADE so much BETTER than the ANGELS, as he has BY INHERITANCE OBTAINED a more excellent NAME than they. (Hebrews 2:7-9 and Psalms 8:3-5 teaches us that the first estate of Jesus, the SON OF Almighty God was made a little LOWER or INFERIOR to the angels. And Philippians 2:4-11 teaches us that it was only AFTER Jesus as the Son of MAN became obedient to do all the will of HIS God and Father even to die on the cross for the sins of the whole world that the Father HIGHLY EXALTED His HUMAN SON Jesus to INHERIT a more excellent name that is above all of God's creation. Basically, Jesus is SECOND in rank and power only to his God and Father the ONE TRUE and ONLY ALMIGHTY God)

5. For unto which of the ANGELS said he (Almighty God the Father) at ANY TIME, You are my SON, THIS DAY have I BEGOTTEN you? (First of all, this verse should prove beyond any shadow of a doubt that Jesus did NOT pre-exist as an ANGEL, which some Christians like the Mormons and the Jehovah's Witnesses FALSELY teach. And even the Oneness and Trinitarian Christians who teach that Jesus was the Angel of the Lord in the Old Testament. However, this verse of Scripture clearly says that God never said at ANY TIME to one of the ANGELS to be his SON. Secondly, the phrase “THIS DAY I have BEGOTTEN you” clearly teaches us that Jesus the SON OF Almighty God was BEGOTTEN or brought forth into existence on a CERTAIN DAY, which teaches us without a doubt that the SON OF God did INDEED HAVE a BEGINNING. The very words “SON” and “BEGOTTEN” demand a BEGINNING for Jesus the only BEGOTTEN SON OF God. So then, the ONLY way that Jesus could have pre-existed is as the WORD, as in, the SPOKEN word of PROPHECY of God’s PLAN to bring forth into existence a human Son that Yahweh would make both Lord and Christ. We will go deeper into this subject of whether or not the word is a part of the one God, as in, God's speech or if the Word was a separate distinct divine eternal person who was with God at his side further on in this study of God's word as to HOW Jesus may have pre-existed as the Word) And again, I WILL BE to him a Father, and he SHALL BE to me a SON? (Now, why would Yahweh PROPHESY of begetting Himself a Son in the future if so be that God’s Son already existed at His side in the eternity past? Why do the PROPHECIES NOT say I Yahweh will send down my Son from heaven and my Son will manifest himself to become flesh in the womb of a virgin. To better understand the ORDER in which the events were PROPHESIED please read the study “ISAIAH 9:6,7 WHAT DOES MIGHTY GOD TRULY MEAN?”)

6. And AGAIN, WHEN he brings in the FIRST BEGOTTEN into the world, He said, And let all the angels of God worship him. (This verse is speaking of the SECOND COMING of Jesus when Almighty God brings His FIRSTBORN SON from the DEAD never to die again back into the world to rule for Yahweh as His King of kings and Lord of lords. The FIRST begotten means the firstborn from the DEAD BACK into the world to rule and reign for 1000 years. This is WHEN every knee shall bow and every tongue shall confess that Jesus is Lord TO the GLORY OF Almighty God the Father. And all the angels shall worship the SON OF God)

7. And of the angels he says, Who makes his angels spirits, and his ministers a flame of fire.

8. But unto the SON He said, Your throne, O God, is forever and ever: a scepter of righteousness is the scepter of your kingdom. (Those who teach the doctrine of the Trinity and the doctrine of the Deity of Jesus during the days of his flesh use this verse to TRY and prove that Jesus IS GOD, in that, Jesus is the ONE TRUE and ONLY ALMIGHTY God Himself in the flesh. Now. while it is indeed TRUE that the Son of MAN, Jesus, has been HIGHLY EXALTED to become [a] God who is UNDER and SUBJECT to his God and Father, this verse does NOT prove that Jesus is THE ALMIGHTY God, who ALONE is the FATHER. For you see, the VERY NEXT verse of Scripture clearly and plainly teaches us that the Father is THE Almighty God who is OVER His SON Jesus)

9. You (My SON) have loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; THEREFORE (Or for this VERY REASON that you have loved righteousness) God,(THE GOD, Almighty God the FATHER) EVEN YOUR God, (Clearly, without a doubt, showing us that Almighty God the FATHER is God EVEN OVER His SON Jesus, who the God and Father of Jesus said to His now highly exalted human SON, EVEN YOUR God) has ANOINTED you with the oil of gladness above your fellows. (Speaking of Jesus being made the HEAD of the body of believers, the church of the FIRSTBORN Son of Yahweh)

10. And, You, Lord, (Speaking of Almighty God the FATHER and NOT His SON Jesus. Please see the studies “DOES HEBREWS 1:10 PROVE JESUS IS YAHWEH?” and “EPHESIANS 3 DID JESUS CREATE ALL THINGS?”. But for now, know that the word “Lord” here can mean [a] lord, as in, a common man, who is a landowner. Or it can mean Lord, as in, referring to Jesus who was MADE to become both Lord and Christ by Almighty God the Father. Or it can mean LORD as referring ONLY to Yahweh, the ONE TRUE and ONLY ALMIGHTY God the FATHER. Also, know that verse 10 here is QUOTED from Psalm 102:25 and that this verse in Psalm 102:25 is definitely speaking of Lord as being Yahweh the one true and only Almighty God the FATHER. So if Lord referred to Almighty God the Father in the Old Testament in Psalm 102, then you can be sure without a doubt that the name Lord here in Hebrews 1:10 is STILL YET referring to Almighty God the Father as the CREATOR who) in the beginning, has laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of Your hands: (The question is, “Did the writer of Hebrews INTEND his words to mean that it is the Father still speaking TO his SON in verse 10”? Or, “Did the writer of Hebrews INTEND his words to be quoting Psalms 102: 25 where the SON is speaking TO Yahweh the Father”? Now, just simple common sense should tell you that in verse 10 the SON is now talking to his God and Father because we just read in verse 9 that Yahweh the Father is OVER His Son Jesus. And in verse 9 we see that God, speaking of Yahweh the Father, is the one who anointed the Son of man, Jesus, to have preeminence above his fellow brethren. Then verse 10 continues to say, and YOU Yahweh who anointed your Son above his brethren have created all things. So the creator is the Father)

11. They shall perish, but you remain, and they all shall wax old as does a garment;

12. And as a vesture shall you fold them up, and they shall be changed: but you are the same, and your years shall not fail. (Then in the next verse, the writer of Hebrews changes back to talking about the Father concerning the PROPHECY about His yet future Son. In other words, verse 13 is changing back to Yahweh talking about his yet future Son who said in His prophecy concerning His future Messiah or His yet future Son to come and sit at my right hand which Yahweh never at any time said to any of the angelic beings)

13. But to which of the ANGELS said he at any time, Sit on my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool? (This ONE verse alone should prove beyond any shadow of a doubt that Jesus did NOT pre-exist as an ANGEL as some FALSELY teach. For you see, God said to His human SON, His only BEGOTTEN SON from the dead to be given eternal life to sit on His right hand. It was the SON OF Almighty God whose first estate was MADE to be a little LOWER than the ANGELS. But then after Jesus, the Son of MAN, became obedient to do all the Will of HIS GOD and Father, then Almighty God the Father HIGHLY EXALTED His only BEGOTTEN SON to inherit a NAME or a place of authority far ABOVE the ANGELS)

14. Are they not all ministering spirits, sent forth to minister for them who shall be heirs of salvation?”

So then, from Hebrews chapter one, we can eliminate Jesus pre-existing as an ANGEL like is taught by the Jehovah's Witnesses and the Mormons and even those who claim the Jesus was the Angel of the Lord in the Old Testament, because to NONE of the ANGELS did God ever say, “You are my SON, this day have I begotten you.”

We can also eliminate Jesus pre-existing as the SON OF God as well because we clearly see that Jesus was BEGOTTEN on a CERTAIN DAY. Therefore the only way that Jesus could have preexisted is that Jesus preexisted as the Word or as the word. So then, this leaves us with only TWO possibilities as to HOW Jesus preexisted as the Word or as the word.

POSSIBILITY #1.

Jesus preexisted as the Word, where the Word was an actual LITERAL divine Spirit being separate and distinct from Almighty God the Father, which Almighty God chose to use to create all things.

POSSIBILITY #2.

Jesus preexisted as the word, where the word was God's very OWN word of THOUGHTS that was WITHIN HIMSELF that God SPOKE FORTH to create ALL things.

Now personally, I myself choose possibility #2 where the word that was WITH God in John 1:1 is referring to God's very own SPOKEN WORD that Almighty God brought forth out from his MOUTH to bring all things into existence including his SON Jesus by SPEAKING FORTH his thoughts and PLANS that Yahweh had within himself that came out from himself in the FORM of his WORD and then Yahweh's spoken WORD BECAME the express IMAGE of what the invisible God desired to BE.

The Bible says that Jesus CAME OUT FROM God, which agrees with the SPOKEN WORD possibility #2, which to ME, makes the most logical sense when one truly considers the WHOLE word of Almighty God.

Jesus understood that the Scriptures SPOKE of HIM so he perceived from the Scriptures that his ORIGIN was FROM ABOVE and that he came into existence through God's SPOKEN WORD. This is why Jesus said, “I CAME OUT FROM God.” Jesus knew from the Scriptures that the SOURCE of his ORIGIN came from heaven above. Jesus knew that he was born of a VIRGIN and that he did not have an earthly father. Jesus knew that he was conceived in the womb of his mother BY the spoken word of God sent down from heaven by the angel Gabriel who then spoke God's word to the Virgin Mary.

Let us take a brief look at the LITERAL translation of John 1:1.

“In beginning was the SAYING and the SAYING was TOWARD THE God and God was the SAYING”

Here is the link to the LITERAL Greek to English Interlinear Bible of the New Testament that I use: 

http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/Greek_Index.htm    

And here is the Old Testament:

http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/Hebrew_Index.htm

And here is John chapter 1:        

http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/joh1.pdf

The word “TOWARD” as defined by the American Heritage Dictionary means; 

1. in the direction of, 

2. in a position facing, 

3. somewhat before in time, approaching,

4. with regard to, in relation to, 

5. in furtherance of partial fulfillment of. 

6. BY WAY OF ACHIEVING; WITH A VIEW TO, 

7. IN PROGRESS or IMMINENT, TRACTIBLE, Coming, favorable, future. 

Also, the word “TOWARD” carries the meaning of a forward motion which again agrees with the interpretation of the word as being God's SPOKEN WORD of PROPHECY. In other words, Jesus was BORN to be King. Jesus said to this END was I BORN. But Jesus will not rule as King until the world to come. So in the same way, the word of prophecy was TOWARD the END direction of the human Son of God being highly exalted to become the eternal Son of God who will RULE as God FOR Yahweh in the world to come. And [A] God was the word or SAYING as opposed to the Word being Yahweh Himself who was WITH Yahweh at Yahweh's side in the eternity past who have always been TWO Yahwehs. To ME, the whole word of God teaches that Yahweh begat Himself a human Son whom He highly exalted after the cross by GIVING Jesus the NAME Yahweh to rule for his God and Father Yahweh in the NAME OF Yahweh. There are NO contradictions with any Scriptures with this interpretation of John 1:1 as “In [a] beginning was the SAYING, and the SAYING was toward God, and {a} God was the SAYING [of PROPHECY].”

Now some translations read “in the beginning was the Word, and the Word was “WITH” THE God, and God was the Word.” 

The English word translated as “WITH” in the King James Version is the Greek word “PROS”, Strong's #4313, that is translated as “the SAYING was “TOWARD” THE God” in the LITERAL translation. This Greek word has many meanings such as to, for, near, with the God, was toward the God, was BECAUSE OF the God, was or is BELONGING TO the God, is PERTAINING TO the God, was or is NIGH UNTO the God, as we read in Romans 10 which teaches us that the word of God is NIGH you and even in your MOUTH, and the SAYING was WITHIN THE God.

Now any one of the definitions could be used in this verse. I personally believe that the best definition is “the SAYING was WITHIN THE God, and God was the SAYING.”

So then, do I choose this literal translation just because it best fits my own personal theology? Or am I simply desiring that my readers and seekers of the truth to truly consider ALL the evidence and then let them decide for themselves? To me, the literal translation AGREES perfectly with the Old Testament PROPHECIES being fulfilled in the Son of man, Jesus and also where God says in Exodus 3:14 in the King James Version,

“I AM THAT I AM”

The LITERAL translation of this verse in Exodus 3:14 is as follows.

Exodus 3:14 from the LITERAL translation.

“I SHALL BECOME WHO I AM BECOMING”

Now IF SO BE that Jesus was quoting Exodus 3:14 in John 8:58 was Jesus the FIRST “I AM” of the “I AM THAT I AM”? Or was Jesus the LAST “I AM” of the “I AM THAT I AM?  In other words, was Jesus saying that he IS Yahweh Himself that is saying “I SHALL BECOME”? Or was Jesus saying that he is the WHO that Yahweh PROPHESIED to come?

To me, IF Jesus was quoting Exodus 3:14 in John 8:58 then Jesus is saying that he is the Messiah, the WHO that Yahweh said he is becoming or bringing into existence. Again, to me, this AGREES PERFECTLY with the DEFINITION of the Greek word “PROS” in John 1:1 which could be translated as follows.

A possible translation of John 1:1.

“In beginning was the SAYING and the SAYING was TOWARD (Or WITHIN. For you see the Greek word “pros also means toward and end goal and something WITHIN God looking toward an end and this SAYING was with) THE God and God was the SAYING.”

All of creation was brought into existence by or through the SPOKEN WORD of Almighty God so WHY try and force the spoken word of God in John 1:1 to now suddenly mean the Word, as in, a LITERAL separate divine CO-EQUAL and CO-ETERNAL Spirit being who has always pre-existed alongside Almighty God, and it was the Word who created all things for Almighty God? 

All the verses in the New Testament that SEEM to be saying that Jesus created all things actually say that Almighty God created the ALL BY, FOR, THROUGH or because OF Jesus, where the English word “THINGS” is NOT in the original Greek text. The ALL is actually speaking of the ALL of whosoever BELIEVES in God's SON as the atonement for their sin is CREATED IN Jesus Christ to become God's NEW CREATION. Please read the study “WHAT DOES FIRSTBORN OF EVERY CREATURE MEAN?”

Now, IF SO BE the writers of the New Testament INTENDED the reader to understand that Almighty God created all things BY his WORD, then to ME it was God's SPOKEN WORD, God LOGOS, God's SAYING. You see my dear brothers and sisters in our Lord Jesus Christ, the Greek word “logos” is found 207 times in the New Testament and 200 of those 207 times it is translated as “word” with a lowercase “w” to mean God's SPOKEN word and God's WRITTEN word. 

But the Trinitarian BIAS translators chose to translate this same exact Greek word “logos” as “Word” seven times in five verses with a capital “W” to influence the reader that in these 7 occurrences the “logos” was NOT merely just the SPOKEN word of God like in ALL the 200 other times, but rather, in these 7 occurrences of the Greek word “logos” the Word was supposedly a separate divine eternal Son of God who was WITH God AT his SIDE for all eternity past. 

However, in TRUTH, all 207 occurrences of the Greek word “logos” always mean the SPOKEN word of God which CAME FORTH OUT FROM God's MOUTH to be written down by the men of old and to be PROPHESIED into existence. Please read the study “EPHESIANS 3:9 DID JESUS CREATE ALL THINGS?” Also, read “IS THE KING JAMES BIBLE CORRUPTED?” In that study I cover some variances in the King James Version such as the Johannine Comma and the controversy of the Trinitarian baptismal formula in Matthew 28:19 that is NOT found in modern translations that are translated from the old manuscripts. To ME, the translators capitalizing the “W” in the Word was God has INFLUENCED some Christians to wrongly believe that the Word in John 1:1 is a SEPARATE divine person who was with Yahweh at Yahweh’s side in the eternity past just because it is CAPITALIZED by the translators. Please understand that earlier translations CHANGED back and forth several times from the word made flesh to the Word made flesh before the newer translations chose to keep the word capitalized as the Word made flesh.

You see dear children of God, the disciples of Jesus KNEW that the SOURCE of the miraculous VIRGIN birth of Jesus was FROM GOD, who SENT His SPOKEN WORD of prophecy DOWN FROM HEAVEN ABOVE by the Angel Gabriel, who then SPOKE FORTH God's WORD to Mary. And then when Mary AGREED to God's SPOKEN WORD, then the SPOKEN WORD was MADE flesh in the womb of Mary to be BORN as the Son of MAN.

Is this not what the WHOLE word of God teaches us? To ME, there is just NOT enough SOUND BIBLICAL evidence to support the INTERPRETATION that God's spoken word was the “Word”, as in, the “logos” was a SEPARATE SECOND PERSON or divine Spirit being that was WITH Almighty God at his side for all eternity WITHOUT ever having a BEGINNING as some dogmatically DEMAND is the ONLY way to INTERPRET John 1:1. Please read the studies “JOHN 1:1 THE WORD WAS GOD!” and “WHAT DOES JOHN 1:14 TRULY MEAN?”

Thanks for reading and may God bless you richly as you continue to seek the truth of the WHOLE word of Almighty God. Below is a list of the studies I mentioned within this study along with all the other studies that I have related to this subject of HOW did Jesus PRE-EXIST. We all agree that Jesus pre-existed in some FORM and that the FORM was divine in “nature”. The word of God is Spirit and the nature of “Spirit” is divine. So the SPOKEN word of PROPHECY is of DIVINE NATURE.

So the question is not IF Jesus pre-existed, but rather, in what FORM as to HOW Jesus pre-existed in at the foundation of the world. Was that so-called pre-existing FORM Yahweh Himself? Was the FORM the IMAGE that Yahweh had WITHIN Himself to one day bring into existence? Was that FORM a God the Son, the second person of a Godhead Trinity? Was that FORM an ANGEL? Was that FORM a created being named the Word who was with God and the Word created everything else? And did that FORM strip himself of all his own divine nature or did Yahweh strip that FORM which was WITHIN Himself to be brought forth into existence to NOT have any divine nature of his own during the days of his FLESH? We ALL agree that that FORM that was stripped of all divine nature to take on human nature was the “logos” of God, but WHAT IS the logos of God?

Again, below is a complete list of all the studies that I have which show WHY I no longer believe in the doctrine of the Trinity and why I can NEVER believe in the doctrine of Oneness. I assure you that every verse that SEEMS to be saying that Jesus pre-existed in eternity past has another meaning that does NOT contradict any other verses of Scripture in the entire Bible.

Thanks for reading and may God bless you richly as you CONTINUE to seek the TRUTH of the WHOLE word of Almighty God.

Your Brother in our Lord Jesus Christ,

Brother Mark.

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VERSES USED TO TEACH THAT JESUS PREEXISTED!

To me, the best way to know the ONE true God in ONE person is to know who Jesus TRULY IS according to the WHOLE word of Almighty God so please read ALL the studies under the heading >>>WHO IS JESUS ACCORDING TO THE BIBLE?<<< and you will see that the Bible itself teaches us that Jesus was CREATED by his God and Father. And if you have any questions related to the correct meaning of certain verses of Scripture on this subject of who Jesus is please read all the studies under the two headings >>>A LIST OF STUDIES ON THE TRINITY!<<< and >>>VERSES USED TO TEACH THAT JESUS PRE-EXISTED!<<< These two headings have ALL the studies that I have on who Jesus truly is according to what the Bible itself teaches us in simplicity. I compiled these three headings to make it easy for my readers to send just one, two, or three links to those you desire to help understand what the Bible itself teaches concerning who Jesus is in the LIGHT of the WHOLE word of Almighty God.

Thanks for reading and may God bless you richly as you continue to seek the truth of the whole word of Almighty God.

Your brother in our Lord Jesus Christ,

Brother Mark.

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