DOES JOHN 1:1c MEAN JESUS IS "A" GOD?

SPELLING EDITED


DOES JOHN 1:1c TEACH THAT JESUS IS “A” GOD?


A dear brother in our Lord Jesus Christ wrote to me in response to me saying to him to try and think about John 1:1 as being a PROPHECY rather than a historical event that took place in the eternity past. My brother in the Lord responded to my teaching that Jesus is not Almighty God Himself, but rather that Jesus is “A” God under his God and Father. His response was that John 1:1 says, in THE BEGINNING, which, to him, means before anything was created. And he added that in THE beginning there was NO PROPHECY. He went on to basically insist that John 1:1 is NOT a prophecy, but even if there was the word of prophecy in the beginning in the eternity past then he questions or doubts that the prophecy is “A” God in John 1:1c. 

And here in this study of God’s word is my response back to him. Obviously, I am adding quite a bit more to this study in God’s word than I actually wrote back to him in an email and I am not quoting word for word everything that I explained to him as to why I myself believe that John 1:1c in a prophecy of the word made flesh being made Lord and God by Yahweh Himself.

 First of all, please understand that if so be that John 1:1 is referring to THE beginning, as in, the very beginning before God created anything at all and only God Himself existed, then I would agree with 100% that the Apostle John intended his words to mean in THE beginning. However, I myself, believe that John wrote down what he believed as a RECORD of what Jesus taught to him. So John wrote down a record of the Old Testament as being PROPHECIES of Jesus. For you see, John wrote down in Greek what he was taught. But what we read today are TRANSLATIONS of the Greek. And all translations do not agree with each other. So how do we decide what is the TRUTH seeing that the many translations of the Bible disagree as to how SOME verses of Scripture should be translated? What I do to find the truth is, I trust the Holy Spirit to lead and guide me into all truth as the word of God promises. I keep searching the word of God for myself while asking God to reveal His Truth to me. So when He says to look up a word to see what the Hebrew or Greek word means then I obey Him and look up those words.

So my first point is that the Word that was WITH God in John 1:1b is a “translation” that should have been translated as the word was TOWARD THE God, as in, the word of prophecy was TOWARD the [creator] God who created all thing by SPEAKING them into existence. In other words, the word “toward” is referring to the word aa being prophecy toward there becoming a god who would JOIN the Almighty God on His throne in the future. So the phrase in John 1:1c should read “and a god was the word” as in, a god was the SAYING. Or more precisely, and the SAYING was a god toward the fulfillment of prophecy. So to me, the true sound Biblical meaning of John 1:1c is a god coming into existence moving toward being with his God at His side in the future. To say this another way, the Bible itself does NOT teach that there was a God the Son in the eternity past who was at God’s side. For you see, God’s yet future Son is PROPHESIED to come into being at the virgin birth. So why would Almighty God prophesy about a yet future Son if so be God already had a Son from all eternity past? Hebrews 1:5 is a quote from a PROPHECY in the Old Testament that was FULFILLED in Acts 13:33,34. Let us read both of those passages of Scripture.


Hebrews 1:3-6.


Who (Speaking of Jesus AFTER the cross) being the brightness of His glory, and the express image of His person, and upholding all things by the word of His power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high; 

4.  Being MADE so much better than the angels, as he has BY inheritance OBTAINED a more excellent NAME than they. (Again, these verses of Scripture are speaking of AFTER the cross. For you see, from the virgin birth of Jesus to the cross, Jesus was made a little LOWER than the angels. And it was AFTER the cross that Jesus was highly exalted and CROWN with glory and honor, according to Hebrews 2:8. So you have to ask yourself the question, why would an already Almighty God the Son INHERIT the worlds to come and OBTAIN a more excellent NAME above that angels. I mean, would not a fully Almighty God the Son already BE above the angels IF SO BE that the doctrine of the Trinity is true?)

5.  For unto which of the angels said he at any time, You are my Son, THIS DAY have I begotten You? (Speaking of the DAY that God raised Jesus from the dead and GAVE him eternal life, according to Acts 13:33,34, and John 5:26.27) And again, I WILL BE to him a Father, and he SHALL BE to me a Son? (Speaking of Yahweh PROPHESYING in the Old Testament Him begetting Himself a Son in the FUTURE which was FULFILLED after the cross on the DAY God raised His human Son from the dead)

6.  And again, (Speaking of the SECOND coming of Jesus) when He brings in the first begotten  (Speaking of the FIRSTBORN from the dead, the FIRSTBORN of EVERY CREATURE made in the IMAGE of God, and also the FIRSTBORN among MANY BRETHREN) into the world, He says, And let all the angels of God worship him.”


Now, seeing that Almighty God Himself will command His angels to WORSHIP His now glorified highly exalted human Son then it must be alright to worship Jesus to the GLORY OF Almighty God the Father. For you see, Jesus was GIVEN a NEW NAME after the cross so that every knee shall bow at the NAME and every tongue will confess that Jesus is Lord to the GLORY OF God the Father, according to Philippians 2:8-11. Both Trinitarian and Oneness Christians dogmatically insist that ONLY God Himself is to be worshiped, and since Jesus is worshiped then Jesus MUST be Almighty God Himself in the flesh. But what they fail to see is that Almighty God can do NEW THINGS, according to Isaiah 42:11, and if God Himself wants His Son to be worshiped then I will worship Jesus, even as, I worship Almighty God the Father to the glory of the Father. Also, just so you know, Jesus will make men come and WORSHIP at OUR feet in the world to come, according to Revelation 3:9. And it is the SAME Greek word used for worship of Almighty God the Father. So the fact that Jesus is worshiped does NOT prove that Jesus is Almighty God Himself. Let us go ahead and read Acts 13:33,34 before we go back to John 1:1.


Acts 13:33,34.


God has FULFILLED the same unto us their children, IN THAT He has raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, (Speaking of the PROPHECY of God’s yet future Son being BEGOTTEN on a certain DAY in the future was FULFILLED on the very DAY that Almighty God resurrected Jesus from the dead. The PROPHECY says) You are my Son, THIS DAY have I BEGOTTEN you

34.  And as concerning that he raised him up from the dead, now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise, I will give you the sure mercies of David.” 


And verse 24 teaches us that Jesus is the FIRSTBORN Son of God means that God not only raised Jesus from the dead but also GAVE him the divine nature of immortality to never die again. That is why Jesus is called the FIRSTBORN among MANY BRETHREN. For you see, we who believe in Jesus now in this present world will be also be made partakers of the divine nature of immortality AT the coming of Jesus. Please read the study “WHAT DOES COLOSSIANS 1:15-17 TRULY MEAN?” But for now, let us go back to John 1:1 to see why ONLY Trinitarian Christians interpret John 1:1 to mean the Word as being God’s SON pre-existing in the eternity past.

Now, to Trinitarian Christians it may seem like John 1:1 is saying that there is a separate person named the Word who was with God as being God’s Son and the Word, or God’s Son was also Almighty God Himself. For you see, by capitalizing the “word” to be the “Word” it makes it seem as if the “Word” is a separate person of a Trinity Godhead who was with God at God’s side in the eternity past. But again, we are reading a TRANSLATION of the Bible and the Word was NOT always capitalized. Plus, in other translations, the word is referred to as an IT as opposed to the pronoun “he” which again makes it seem as if the word is a person. 

Now, when you look up the meaning of the Greek word translated a “with” in the King James Version you will see that it also means TOWARD God, as in, being WITHIN God. In other words, the word of PROPHECY was still yet within God having not yet been SPOKEN out from His mouth as PROPHECY. For you see, after God speaks His word out from His mouth then creation begins to take place as God Himself performs His spoken word of prophecy according to Isaiah 9:7 and other Old Testament verses such as  Ezekiel 12:25. The Greek word “logos” is translated as the “word” 207 times in the King James Version of the Bible and it always means God SPOKEN word that came forth out from the mouth of Almighty God. But yet, the King James Version has the word capitalized 7 times which raised the question WHY? Were the translators biased toward the doctrine of the Trinity? I believe so. For you see, there is other sound evidence of BIAS toward the doctrine of the Trinity in the KJV. For example, there is much evidence that 1 John 5:7 and part of verse 8 was ADDED in the 17th century. Please read the studies “1 John 5:7 THESE THREE ARE ONE!” and “IS THE KING JAMES BIBLE CORRUPTED? And by “corrupted” I mean BIASED toward the doctrine of the Trinity. I prefer reading the King James Bible over any other translation but I am NOT a King James ONLY Christian.

Now, another reason why ONLY Trinitarian Christians believe that the Word in John 1:1 is the always self-existing God the Son in the eternity past having NO beginning is because they NEED Jesus to be God the Son INCARNATE. But John 1:14 does NOT say “And God the Son incarnated himself to become flesh and yet remain fully the Almighty God having TWO natures at the SAME time, one divine, and one human” But rather, John 1:14 clearly states that the “word” was MADE FLESH. And we know that the PROPHECY says that a CHILD would be BORN of a woman and that man and the Son of man are made a little LOWER than the angels. So ask yourself the question IF SO BE that the doctrine of the DEITY is true then how could Jesus who was made LOWER then the angels be Almighty God Himself during the days of his FLESH? Are the angels equal with Almighty God? NO! Absolutely NOT! And neither was the Son OF God equal with God. For you see, Jesus himself said that he could do NOTHING OF himself and that it was the Father DWELLING IN his who did the works.

By yet, Trinitarian Christians argue that John 1:2-5 teaches that Jesus IS the CREATOR!

No, it does NOT. John 1:1-5 teaches us that Almighty God the FATHER IS the creator and that Almighty God Father DWELT IN Jesus. Let us read John 1:1-5 so you can see that the pronoun “he” in verse 3 refers back to THE Almighty God the Father in verse 2. For you see, the general rule of interpreting pronoun use in that the pronoun refers back to the nears NOUN which is the word “god” in verse 2. I will use the LITERAL translation for verses 1 and 2 and the KJV for verses 3-5. And I will add my comments in parenthesis as well.


John 1:1-5 using both the LITERAL translation and the KJV.


“In beginning (As opposed to in THE beginning) was the SAYING, and the SAYING was TOWARD THE God, and God was the SAYING. (Remember that the word God in John 1:1c could ALSO be translated as and a god was the SAYING)

2.  This (Or the same speaking of the SAYING) was in beginning TOWARD THE God

3.  All things were made by Him, AND without him (Or without IT speaking of the spoken word that came out from the mouth of THE God) was not anything made that was made. (Also, this could be speaking of not one us as new creatures were created in Jesus without him. For you see, the word things is NOT in the original Greek text. Here is how verse 3 reads from the LITERAL translation. John 1:3 ALL through same became and apart from same became not yet one that has become. As in, has become one of the ALL of whosever BELIEVES in Jesus to be saved, according to the word of PROPHECY which Almighty God Yahweh Himself prophesied out from His own mouth)

IN him (Speaking of the SAYING made FLESH) was life, and the life was the light of men. (Speaking of the words of Jesus that Yahweh Himself put in the mouth of the Son of man, Jesus, to speak FOR Yahweh the Father who DWELT IN Jesus. It is the word of Yahweh that GIVE light or UNDERSTANDING how to be saved)

5.  And the light shines (Which means to show, as in, show and then THINK about what you have been taught. So the light is the preaching of the gospel that shines) in the darkness, and the darkness comprehended it not. 


Speaking of the light or words coming through Jesus from the Light or the words of the eternal life of the Father dwelling IN Jesus. For you see, Almighty God the Father Himself is the Father OF lights and every good GIFT comes down from Him, Almighty God the Father, according to James 1:17,18. It was Yahweh Himself who begat us through His word of truth that He Himself put in the mouth of the Son of MAN, Jesus, to speak to his disciples who wrote down the gospel of our salvation. It was Almighty God the Father who GAVE His HUMAN Son to die on the cross. For you see, it was the Son of MAN who died on the cross, according to Jesus in John 8:28.


John 8:28.


“Then said Jesus unto them, When you have lifted up the Son of MAN, then shall you know that I am he and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father has taught me, I speak these things.”


Both Oneness and Trinitarian Christians use John 8:58 where Jesus says “before Abraham I am” to try and prove that Jesus is saying the he is Almighty God Yahweh Himself by simply saying the words “I am”. Now, who better to know what the Apostle John intended his word to mean than the Apostle John himself who wrote the gospel of John? Here is what the Apostle John himself says as to what we are to BELIEVE concerning WHO Jesus IS.


Please read John 20:30,31.


The Purpose of This Book


“And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book: (Speaking of the gospel of John)

31.  But these are written, THAT (Or SO THAT or IN ORDER THAT) you might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the SON OF God; and that believing (THAT Jesus IS the CHRIST, the SON OF God) you might have life through his name.”


So then, the Apostle John did NOT intend his RECORD of Jesus IS to be wrongly “interpreted” in John 8:58 that Jesus is saying that he is Almighty God Yahweh Himself by John recording the words of Jesus saying the words “I am”. Jesus Himself clearly identified the ONLY TRUE God as being the FATHER in John 17:1-3.

But yet, Trinitarians still argue that the pronoun “he” in John 1:3 refers back to the SAYING in verse 2 which is wrong capitalized as the Word in the KJV. They argue that the pronoun “he is NOT referring to THE God in verse 2. But even if Trinitarian Christians insist that the pronoun “he” refers back to the Word in verse 2, it is still the SPOKEN word of PROPHECY that is making the ALL by God SPEAKING His OWN spoken word out from His OWN mouth and then PERFORMING His OWN SAYING of PROPHECY. How can you not see that the word is NOT a separate person who was WITH God at His SIDE, but rather, the word of prophecy WITHIN Yahweh that was TOWARD being FULFILLED by God performing His own spoken word? Even the well known Trinitarian Michael Brown knows and understands that the word in John 1:1 is NOT a separate person who was with God in the eternity past. Please take a few minutes and watch the video The Trinitarian Michael Brown admits the word in John 1:1 is NOT a person!

God SAID in Genesis 1:3 “Let there be LIGHT” and PROPHECY of His yet future Messiah to be LIGHTcame to pass and light came into existence. God is using the LIGHT that He Himself CREATED to divide the light from the darkness. In other words, God is using His SAYING made FLESH to divide the EVIL from the GOOD. Let us go back to John 1:1a to take a CLOSE look at the word “beginning” to learn if John intended his words to mean the eternity past or ANOTHER beginning AFTER Lucifer and the fallen angels rebelled against God.

My second point no matter WHEN one “interprets” the beginning to be, the Bible itself says that there was indeed prophecy BEFORE the FOUNDATION of the WORLD. The Lamb was slain FROM or BEFORE the foundation of the world is one example that you can readily see. And we all agree that the Lamb was NOT literally slain BEFORE the earth was created. So IF one “interpreprets” the phrase “the foundation of the world” to mean the eternity past in THE beginning, as in, the very beginning before God created the universe or anything else, then there was PROPHECY in THE beginning. But again, the word had to still yet be WITHIN God as opposed to being AT God’s SIDE because once God SPEAKS forth His word out from His mouth the process of creation begins.

So then, we have two possibilities as to how to interpret John 1:1.

 

Interpretation #1 is the Trinitarian interpretation.

 

All Trinitarian Christians interpret John 1:1a, the first clause, to mean that THE beginning IS the eternity past before anything was created because they HAVE to do so or their doctrine of the Trinity of the Son never having a beginning falls apart. And they also interpret the word “God “ in John 1:1c, the last clause of verse 1, as being THE God, as in, the one true and only Almighty God Himself and definitely not “a” God. For you see, Trinitarian Christians NEED the word “God” in John 1:1 c to be THE Almighty God Himself or they can NOT use John 1:1 as a prooftext to support their doctrine of the Trinity. I mean if any Trinitarian Christian openly admits that the word “God” in John 1:1c is “a” God as opposed to being THE Almighty God Himself, then they could no longer be a Trinitarian Christian. For you see, the doctrine of the Trinity teaches that the Son is co-equal with the Father in every way where neither is greater than nor less than the other. And the doctrine of the Trinity also teaches that the Son of co-eternal with the Father which means that the Son always existed and never had a beginning. So Trinitarian Christians NEED the word in John 1:1 to be a SEPARATE PERSON who was literally WITH Almighty God the Father AT His SIDE in order for the doctrine of the Trinity to have any support at all. And the well known hardcore Trinitarian Michael Brown in that video, openly admits that the word in John 1:1 is NOT a separate person from God and that the word is the SPEECH that came out from the MOUTH of God. He unknowingly contradicts the doctrine of the Trinity so the truth of the matter is that he only THINKS that he is still a believer in the DOCTRINE of the Trinity. There is this idea that gets into the minds of Trinitarian Christians that if they knowingly deny the doctrine of the Trinity then they will die in their sins. Now, that is simply NOT the truth. In other words, if any Christian rejects the doctrine of the Trinity they would still yet be Christians who no longer can believe in the doctrine of the Trinity. Believing in the doctrine of the Trinity is NOT what makes a person be a Christian.

 

Interpretation #2. is the interpretation of every other Christian except for the Trinitarian Christians

 

For you see, almost all other Christians interpret the word “beginning” as “A” beginning after the universe and the angels were already created long before God created Adam. For you see, it is obvious that Lucifer and the fallen angels rebelled against God BEFORE God created Adam. Also, ALL other Christians interpret the word “God” in John 1:1c as “a” God coming into existence and NOT as THE Almighty God Himself who has always existed without ever having a beginning or an origin.

Now, here are some other reasons as to why all other Christians are NOT Trinitarian Christians.

First of all, we are reading TRANSLATIONS of the original Hebrew and Greek manuscripts and not all translations agree with each other. Plus, the translators have added words that are NOT in the Hebrew and Greek manuscripts. Sometimes, the added words are needed for clarity because the English sentence structure is different than the Greek sentence structure. However, some added words make the translation of that particular verse of Scripture BIASED toward a particular belief.

For example, we will use the King James Version, and in the KJV the definite article “the” is ADDED before the word “beginning” in John 1:1a, the first clause. So, in truth, it could be translated as “In a beginning was the word…” In other words, John 1:1 is speaking of ANOTHER beginning where the earth is recreated or restore to be habitable once again. This is NOT hard to accept seeing that God will once again RECREATE the heavens and the earth yet again at the END of the Millennial reign of Jesus. It is prophesied for this event to happen and when it will happen in Revelation 21:5. God will make all things NEW when He Himself creates the new heavens and the new earth after the earth passes away at the end of the Millennial reign of Jesus.

Secondly, I want to point out that the translators REMOVED or did NOT translate the definite article “THE” in in the original Greek text in the second clause. And thus, there SHOULD be the definite article “THE” before the word “God” to say the word was toward “THE God” in John 1:1b, the second clause. 

And also, in the third clause, John 1:1c, the translators did not add the definite article “THE” to wrongly translate it as “the word was THE God”. For you see, if they did add the definite article “the” then other Greek translators would have shown them to be in error because they know that John 1:1c could be translated as the word was “a” god and it would NOT be an incorrect translation.

So then, if it was “translated” as “a” god from the very first translation of the Bible and all through the history of the church then there would be NO doctrine of the Trinity. For you see, John 1:1 is one of THE main prooftext used by Trinitarian Christians. 

So the question arises in my mind, “Were the translators biased toward the doctrine of the Trinity by deliberately not translating the definite article THE before the word God in John 1:1b to hide the very noticeable difference between the two Gods where the God in John 1:1b is the Almighty God and the word “God” in John 1:1 c is “a” god?” Even without capital letters in Greek, the difference between the two Gods is very noticeable that the word God in John 1:1c could very well be read and understood as “A” God.

Now, we need to remember that the early church Christians who could read and who also had access to manuscripts read John 1:1 in Greek. And thus, they knew that there was NO definite article before the word “beginning” in John 1:1a and that there was NO definite article before the word “god” in John 1:1c. And they ALSO knew that there was, indeed, the definite article “THE” before the word “God” in John 1:1b which indicated a DIFFERENCE to the word “god’ in John 1:1c because the was NO definite article “THE” before the word “god” in John 1:1c. For you see, they were reading the original Greek New Testament of the gospel of John as opposed to reading a TRANSLATION into another language.

And that is why there was a CONTROVERSY over the forming of the doctrine of the Trinity that took over three centuries to develop. And even after the doctrine of the Trinity was made LAW so to speak there were still Christians who would rather be martyred than to believe in the man-made doctrine of the Trinity. Also, you need to be aware that the TWO natures at the SAME time called the doctrine of the Deity of Jesus was not made LAW so to speak until 451 AD at the council of Chalcedon.

Now, I also want to point out that the words FOUNDATION and WORLD do NOT mean what some Christians think they mean. For you see, the Scripture in Revelation 13:8 says the world as opposed to saying the earth. Please understand that there is a difference between the two. The earth is the planet and the world is the system that has RULES and regulations. And the word foundation does NOT mean the original creation of the earth in the eternity past as you will soon see. 

 

Let us read Revelation 13:8

 

“And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.”

 

Now, we all agree that the Lamb is Jesus and that Jesus was not LITERALLY slain BEFORE the earth was ever created in the eternity past. So then, what do the verses of Scripture like Ephesians 1:4 truly mean in the LIGHT of the whole word of Almighty God? For you see, the Scriptures says that we were CHOSEN IN him BEFORE the “FOUNDATION” of the world, speaking of Jesus being slain in the mind and plan of God and salvation being CHOSEN by Yahweh as being IN Jesus. 

 

Please read Ephesians 1:4.

 

“According as he has chosen us IN him BEFORE the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:”

 

Could Calvinism be right in their “interpretation” of the Scriptures that Jesus did NOT die for the sins of the WHOLE world? Could Calvinism be right in their interpreting the Scriptures that God chose only certain specific people to be saved while choosing everyone else to be specifically created to be destroyed in the lake of fire? Absolutely NOT! For you see, the lake of fire was made ONLY for Satan and the fallen angels and Jesus did, indeed, die for the sins of the WHOLE world, according to 1 John 2:2.

 

Please read Matthew 25:41  

 

“Then shall he say also unto them on the left hand, Depart from me, you cursed, into everlasting fire, prepared for the devil and his angels:” 

 

It was only AFTER mankind sinned by being DECEIVED by Satan, the Devil, that hell ENLARGED herself to include unsaved humans who live in a lifestyle of sin, according to Isaiah 5:15. So again, NO! God did NOT predestine certain people to descend down to hell having no chance of ever being saved as Calvinism wrongly teaches.

So then, why would God have a PLAN of salvation in THE beginning in the eternity past before God ever created anything as yet? The answer is SIMPLE, John 1:1 is NOT speaking of in THE beginning in the eternity past, but rather, John 1:1 is speaking of “A” beginning AFTER Lucifer and the fallen angels rebelled against Almighty God and God was about to cast them into the lake of fire prepared for THEM.

For you see, the word “foundation” in the verses of Scripture in the New Testament that speak of the foundation of the WORLD does not mean a literal foundation like we picture a house sitting on. God hung the earth upon nothing, as opposed to setting the earth on a literal foundation. But rather, the phrase “the foundation of the WORLD” means the founding or establishing the rules of the world system. Basically, God made some rules for Satan and the fallen angels that were not bound in chains in the bottomless until the final Day of Judgment at the end of the Millennium. And it seems, to me, that one of those founding rules was “Let us make a new species of beings that are a little lower than you angels so that I can prove to you that what I create, I create perfect in the day that I create it. And I created you, Lucifer, PERFECT in the day I created you. So I am just to destroy you in the lake of fire. BUT here is what we will do. Let us make man in our image having the freedom to chose and if even one man does not sin then I will destroy you in the lake of fire. Man will be all the PROOF I need to show you to be a LIAR that I created you with a sinful rebellious nature.” And another rule that God founded before he restored the earth and created Adam seems to be that Satan and the fallen angels are NOT to interfere to influence Adam to sin.

Here is how E-Sword defines the Greek word translated as the “foundation” of the world in Revelation 13:8 in the KJV where the Lamb was slain BEFORE or FROM the foundation of the world.

 

G2602

καταβολή

katabolē

kat-ab-ol-ay'

From G2598; a deposition, that is, founding; figuratively conception: - conceive, foundation.

 

The word deposition means the deposing of someone, especially a monarch. And the word depose means to remove or to dethrone. In other words, the word “foundation” means the DETHRONING of a king or a god such as Lucifer, aka, Satan. For you see, Lucifer was once a good angel who was given power and authority to rule in God's universe BEFORE God created Adam. The word “god” is a TITLE. We know this because Satan is called the god of this present restored world. God set Adam to have DOMINION over the earth but then Satan stole Adam’s dominion to self-exalt himself as the “rebel” god of this present world.

 

Please read 2 Corinthians 4:4. 

 

“In whom the god of this world has blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the IMAGE OF God, (As opposed to being Almighty God Himself) should shine unto them.”

 

Now, I believe there is more than enough evidence in the Bible to show that Lucifer was once a good god over the earth who was appointed to be god over the earth by Yahweh Himself in ancient times before Lucifer was lifted up with PRIDE to self-exalt himself to ascend above the clouds to be like Almighty God.

 

Please read Isaiah 14:12-15.

 

“How are you fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! How are you cut down to the ground, which did weaken the nations! 

13.  For you have said in your heart, I will ascend into heaven, I will exalt my throne above the stars of God: (This teaches us that Lucifer did, indeed, HAVE a THRONE which he said in his heart that he would EXALT ABOVE the stars of God. Now the stars of God could be literal stars in outer space or the stars of God could be referring to the angelic beings and Lucifer wanted to be above all the angels and not just a god over the earth) I will sit also upon the mount of the congregation, in the sides of the north: (The city of our God the eternal King is in the sides of the NORTH, according to Psalm 48:2) 

14.  I will ascend above the heights of the CLOUDS; I will be like the most-High. (Yes, there could be clouds around other planets in the universe but the Bible talks about the earth that BECAME void and empty in Genesis 1:2. So the clouds here are speaking of the clouds of the earth and not some other planet in the universe)

15  Yet you shall be brought down to hell, to the sides of the pit.”

 

Back to the meaning of the phrase “the FOUNDATION of the WORLD”  The word foundation is translated from the Greek word “katabole” which means a DEPOSITION and the deposing of someone in authority. And the word “katabole” comes from the Greek word “Katabollo”. And here is how E-Sword defines “katabollo”.

 

G2598

καταβάλλω

kataballō

kat-ab-al'-lo

From G2596 and G906; to throw down: - cast down, lay.

 

So then, God is in the process of dethroning Lucifer, aka, Satan, and to PROMOTE another in his place. 

God has already cast Lucifer out of both the third heaven that is the throne of God in heaven and the second heaven that is outer space and has confined him and the fallen angels to the earth and the first heaven which is the sky or the atmosphere of the earth. And right before Jesus returns, Satan will be cast out of the first heaven down to the ground. And at the coming of Jesus, Satan will be bound in the bottomless pit for 1000 years.

And here is one prophecy that supports what I am saying concerning God DETHRONING Satan and PROMOTING another to take his place.


Please read Psalm 75:6,7.

 

“For PROMOTION comes neither from the east, nor from the west, nor from the south. (Meaning that the city of God is in the sides of the NORTH and promotion comes only from God Himself and not like Lucifer self-exalting or self-promoting himself)

7.  But God is the judge: He puts down one, and sets up another.”

 

So then, WHO did God HIGHLY EXALT or PROMOTE and SET as His King of kings to rule as Mighty God WHEN the government is laid upon his shoulders?

Well, every Christian believes that Isaiah 9:6,7 is speaking of Jesus who SHALL be called the Mighty God in the world to come. Please read Isaiah 9:6,7, and while you are reading those PROPHETIC verses of Scripture please notice the ORDER in which those events are PROPHESIED. The Scripture does NOT prophecy that God will send down His Son from heaven to be born, but rather, it says a CHILD will be BORN. And THEN it says a son is GIVEN. THEN it say that his NAME shall be called Mighty God WHEN the government is laid upon his shoulder which has not yet been fulfilled.

 

Isaiah 9:6,7.

 

“For unto us (#1. The order of the FIRST part of this prophecy to be fulfilled) a CHILD is BORN, unto us (#2. The order of the SECOND part of this prophecy to be fulfilled come AFTER the Son of MAN, Jesus if BORN of the Virgin Mary and THEN) a son is given: and (#3. The order of the THIRD part of this prophecy that is yet to be fulfilled in the world to come is) the government shall be upon his shoulder: and (#4. The order of the FOURTH part of this prophecy that is yet to be fulfilled in the world yet to come WHEN Jesus will return to rule FOR Yahweh as the King of kings and the Lord of lords and THEN) his NAME shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, (Or more precisely, his new name shall be called the Father of ETERNAL LIFE seeing that Yahweh Simself GAVE the Son of MAN, Jesus, the power and the authority to raise that dead and GIVE eternal life to whosoever Jesus pleases to give everlasting life to. See John 5:19-30. Jesus will also be called in the world to come)

The Prince of Peace. 

7.  Of the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David, and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with judgment and with justice from henceforth even forever. (Now notice WHO is PERFORMING His OWN SPOKEN word of PROPHECY that came forth out of His own MOUTH. It is NOT the so-called God the Son, but rather, it is Yahweh Himself ALONE and by Himself) The zeal of the LORD of hosts will perform this.”

 

So then, BY God speaking forth His own word out from His own MOUTH to become FLESH, The “word” was made flesh, as in, the SPOKEN word of PROPHECY became a HUMAN CHILD being without any DIVINE NATURE. And then AFTER that CHILD grew and learned to refuse the evil and chose the good, Yahweh ANOINTED the Son of MAN, Jesus, at his baptism to accomplish the task of living without sin and dying on the cross for the sins of the world.

In other words, it was AT the baptism of Jesus the DIVINE Almighty God sent His own Spirit down from heaven to DWELL IN the human Jesus in order to ENDUE the Son of MAN with POWER from on High. Jesus still yet di not have DIVINE nature, but rather, the one true divine Almighty God the Father DWELT IN the Son of MAN, Jesus, to EMPOWER the Son of Man to overcome the enemy to not sin and to also do all the WILL of his God and Father even to suffer and die on the cross for the sins of the world. Almighty God was WITH the MAN, Jesus as opposed to Jesus as being Almighty God Himself. You see it was the ANOINTING that came IN the FLESH of the human Jesus as opposed to Almighty God manifesting Himself to become FLESH. Please read the study “1 TIMOTHY 3:16. GOD MANIFEST IN THE FLESH!” It does NOT say God manifested Himself in the flesh.

It was only AFTER the ANOINTED Son of MAN overcame sin and died on the cross as God’s spotless Lamb that the Son of MAN, Jesus, was HIGHLY EXALTED to BECOME DEITY by being GIVEN the DIVINE NATURE of IMMORTALITY by Yahweh the Father. Please read the three-part study “WHEN DID JESUS BECOME GOD’S ETERNAL SON?”

To ME, there is NO doubt that John 1:14 clearly and plainly STATES that the “word”, as in, the SAYING of God was made FLESH and NOT a “HE”, as in, God the Son, or the Son of God, or even Almighty God the Father Himself WHO was made FLESH. But rather, the Bible ITSELF states as a fact with no interpretation needed that the “word” was made FLESH. And mere common sense should be enough for every Christian to know and understand that the “word” in John 1:1 and John 1:14 is the SPOKEN WORD OF PROPHECY of God that was FULFILLED by Yahweh PERFORMING His own word of prophecy to be made or to become flesh.

So to me, and every other Christian except for Trinitarian Christians interpret John 1:1 as a PROPHECY of the word being made flesh first and then the Son of MAN being highly exalted to be MADE Lord after the cross. And our Lord Jesus will rule FOR Yahweh THE Almighty God in the world to come for 1000 years.

Then Almighty God the Father will JUDGE Satan and the fallen angels to be guilty as charged BY the RIGHTEOUSNESS of the MAN, Jesus anointed, according to Acts 17:31. Jesus became “a” God after the cross. It was AFTER the cross that Thomas said “My Lord and my God”. It was AFTER the cross that Jesus was GIVEN all power and authority. It was AFTER the cross that God COMMITTED all judgment to Jesus. It was AFTER the cross when God highly exacted the Son of MAN, Jesus. And it was AFTER the cross that Yahweh made Jesus Lord and God to ruler FOR Him in the world to come. Remember the Father’s words in Hebrews 1:9.

For you LOVED righteous and you hated iniquity or sin, THEREFORE, God, even YOUR God, has ANOINTED you to be above your FELLOWS. And we are the FELLOWS, the brethren, and joint HEIRS with Jesus. Why would an already Almighty God the Son INHERIT what an Almighty God would already own? Why would God ANOINT an already God to Son to be ABOVE his FELLOWS when an already God the Son would already have been above the angels? And why would we be called the FELLOWS of an already God the Son from all eternity past? Jesus said that we will be ONE with him and the Father even AS he and the Father are ONE. But that does NOT mean that we become Almighty God Himself at the coming of Jesus. Rather, it means that we become gods under our God, Jesus who is under THE one true and ONLY Almighty God the creator. Can you not see that Jesus is a God under and subject to his God who is always clearly identified as being the Father? 

The whole chapter one of Hebrews is about Jesus OBTAINING a more excellent NAME than the angels. Now, why would and already God the Son OBTAIN and more excellent NAME than the angels? Hebrews 1:5-9 is speaking of the highly exalted Son of MAN, Jesus AFTER the cross. 

The TRUTH of the matter is that Jesus is NOT some pre-existing God the Son who incarnated himself in the flesh. But rather, Jesus is the FULFILMENT of the PROPHECY of Yahweh Himself performing His own spoken word of prophecy to bring IT to pass. The “word” of God is an “IT” that BECAME a “he” after the “IT” was made flesh. And many Bibles both before and after the King James Version translate the word in John 1:1 as an IT and they do NOT capitalize the “word” as the Word to make it seem as if the word is a person. Please read the study “WHAT DOES JOHN 1:1-5,14,18 TRULY MEAN?”

Going back to John 1:1 let us look at the LITERAL word-for-word translation that translates the Greek word “pros” as TOWARD THE God as opposed to the KJV saying WITH God without the definite article THE. Now, to me, by the translators NOT translating the definite article “THE” before the word God in John 1:1b is a bit deceiving on the part of the KJV translation as well as other translations. For you see, it seems as if they are trying to hide the fact that the word God in John 1:1c is not THE God by their NOT translating the definite article “THE” which IS, indeed, in the original Greek text.

 

Here is the LITERAL translation of John 1:1.

 

“In beginning was the SAYING, and the saying was TOWARD THE God, and God was the SAYING.”

 

Please notice that there is NO definite article “the” before the word “beginning”. So in truth, John 1:1 could be ANY beginning and it does NOT have to be the very beginning in the eternity past. Then notice that the definite article “THE” is, indeed, in the original Greek text but the King James translator chose NOT to translate it. And again, to me, you have to ask yourself WHY they chose NOT to translate the definite article “THE” before the word “God” in John 1:1b? My point right now is the other meaning of the Greek word “pros” that the King James Version translates as “with” God to make it seem as if a separate person was with the Almighty Creator God AT His SIDE in all the eternity past.

 Here is how E-Sword defines the Greek word “pros” that is translated as WITH God in the KJV to make it sound as if the word is a person name the Word who was WITH God at His SIDE in the eternity past. For you see, if there was NO other SEPARATE person who has always been WITH Almighty God at His SIDE then the doctrine of the trinity would collapse and be proven as false teaching.

 

G4314

πρός

pros

pros

A strengthened form of G4253; a preposition of direction; forward to, that is, toward (with the genitive case the side of, that is, pertaining to; with the dative case by the side of, that is, near to; usually with the accusative case the place, time, occasion, or respect, which is the destination of the relation, that is, whither or for which it is predicated): - about, according to, against, among, at, because of, before, between, ([where-]) by, for, X at thy house, in, for intent, nigh unto, of, which pertain to, that, to (the end that), + together, to ([you]) -ward, unto, with (-in). In compounds, it denotes essentially the same applications, namely, motion towards, accession to, or nearness at.

 

The word accession to or towards the DESTINATION means the attainment or acquisition of a position of rank or power, typically that of monarch or president. 

So then, while the Greek word also means with the God at the side of, that is NOT the ONLY meaning of the Greek word “pros”. It also means WITHIN the Almighty God, as in, the word was WITHIN God as our speech is within our minds before we speak it out from our mouth.

It also means TOWARD, as in, the word of prophecy is TOWARD or in motion towards being fulfilled.

So to me, John 1:1 is John teaching us about the Old Testament PROPHESIES and one of the SAYINGS of God in the Old Testament was TOWARD THE God, as in the plan of God to manifest Himself a god which is exactly what 1 Timothy 3:16 teaches us. It does NOT say that God Himself was manifest in the flesh. But rather it says God manifest in the flesh. Please read the study “1 Timothy 3:16 GOD MANIFEST IN THE FLESH”

So then, in truth, John 1:1 cannot or rather should not be dogmatically demanded that the Trinitarian interpretation is the ONLY way that John 1:1 can be interpreted. Even the Oneness Pentecostal Christians who dogmatically insist that Jesus is Yahweh Himself do NOT interpret John 1:1 as a PRE-EXISTING Son of God in the eternity past. They believe that Jesus came into existence AT his virgin birth. The only other groups of Christians that believe that Jesus PRE-EXISTED in the eternity past other than Trinitarian Christians are the Jehovah’s Witnesses and the Christadelphian Christians.

Remember that John 1:14 does not say, “And God was made flesh”, Nor does it say “And God the Son was made flesh”.  And neither does it say “And the Son was made flesh”. And in truth, it does not say “And the Word was made flesh”, as in, with a capital “W” to make it appear that the “word” is a person. But rather, in the original text it says “And the word or the SAYING was made flesh.”

Also, it says FLESH and NOT the word was made flesh AND yet remained THE Almighty God. And, therefore, Jesus had TWO natures at the SAME time during the days of his FLESH, one divine, and one human. All that is read INTO John 1:14 and the rest of the verses of Scripture that are used by Trinitarian Christians to try and prove that our God is a Trinity Godhead composed of three separate persons in the ONE God so that they can harmonize Jesus being CALLED God by his God and Father in Hebrews 1:8.

Hebrews chapter 1 is speaking about AFTER the cross. Let us go ahead and read Hebrews chapter one so you can see that Jesus OBTAINED a NAME more excellent than the angels. Now, if so be that Jesus was fully the Almighty God Himself in the flesh then WHY did an already Almighty God in the flesh need to OBTAIN a NAME above every other name to JUDGE the angels?

 

Please read Hebrews 1:1-14.

 

God (Speaking of Yahweh, Almighty God, the FATHER) who at sundry times and in divers manners spoke in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, (Meaning that in times past, Almighty God spoke to His people the Jews or the children of Israel under the Old Testament covenant ONLY BY His prophets. And that means that ALL the verses in the Old Testament such as the Angel of the Lord and the three men that appeared to Abraham are NOT theophanies of Jesus, Otherwise, the Bible contradicts itself by saying that in past times God spoke to His people by the prophets. But NOW, under the New Covenant, the Lord God Yahweh)

2. Has in these last days spoken unto us by His SON, whom HE (Almighty God the Father) has appointed HEIR of ALL things, (Now, IF SO BE that the Trinitarian and Oneness Pentecostal  INTERPRETATION of Hebrews 1:10 that Jesus IS ALMIGHTY God YAHWEH Himself is the true INTENDED meaning of the writer of Hebrews, then WHY would the writer of Hebrews ALSO say that is was Almighty God, who APPOINTED His Son Jesus to become the HEIR of ALL things? THINK this through for yourself my dear brothers and sisters in our Lord Jesus Christ. IF SO BE that Jesus is truly Almighty God Himself then he would ALREADY OWN all things being the creator of ALL things! Thus, there would be no need for Almighty God the Father, the God OF Jesus, to GIVE His Son Jesus ANYTHING whatsoever. Let us stay with what the word of truth is saying which is that God APPOINTED His SON to be the HEIR of ALL things) BY whom also HE (Speaking of Almighty God the Father) made the worlds; (Now, again, Trinitarian Christians INTERPRET this verse as JESUS himself creating the worlds because the Greek word here in the original text was TRANSLATED as the English word “BY” whom. But you see dear children of God, the English word BY is translated from the Greek word “di”, which is a contraction of the Greek word “dia” that can mean “by” and “through” but ALSO means “FOR, as in, FOR the SAKE of God’s yet future Son to INHERIT as his reward for obeying all the Will of his God and Father. And seeing that the CONTEXT says that Jesus was APPOINTED to INHERIT all things, then to ME, the translators are either BIAS or they missed the CONTEXT when they translated this Greek word as BY when it is obvious by the context that Jesus will INHERIT the worlds which were APPOINTED FOR him to inherit. So then, one interpretation can be “FOR whom Almighty God the Father made the EON;” The Greek word that is TRANSLATED as “worlds” is the Greek word “aion” meaning an AGE, perpetuity, or perpetual, and eternal. And by implication, the worlds are referring to the worlds to COME and NOT the original creation. Also, the LITERAL translation of the Greek word that is “translated” as MADE in the past tense is “he MAKES” showing a FUTURE tense of Almighty God MAKING or SHALL make FOR His Son Jesus and his fellow HEIRS of the world to COME. Please see the study Ephesians 3:9-11 DID JESUS CREATE ALL THINGS?” In fact, please read all the studies under the heading >>>IS JESUS THE CREATOR?<<< So then, God made the world yet to come FOR His now highly exalted Son)

3. Who (Speaking of the now glorified Jesus AFTER the cross, the SON OF Almighty God the Father) being the brightness of HIS glory, (Or the glory of his God and Father, the ALMIGHTY Yahweh) and the express IMAGE OF HIS person, (Again, WHY would the writer of Hebrew stress that Jesus came into being in the IMAGE OF the person of Almighty God the Father IF SO BE that the INTENTION of the writer of Hebrews was to PROVE beyond any shadow of a doubt that Jesus IS Almighty God Yahweh Himself? Also, the LITERAL translation of the Greek word that is TRANSLATED as “person” is UNDERSTANDING. In other words, Jesus was the EXPRESSED IMAGE of the TRUE UNDERSTANDING of the Father and NOT the image of the “divine nature” of Almighty God. But even if one demands that the word image means divine nature, the Son of MAN did not obtain the divine nature of immortality until AFTER the cross. And that is WHEN Jesus was made in the express IMAGE of Yahweh’s person which does NOT mean that Jesus became Yahweh Himself.  Jesus came to SHOW us the Father by the WORKS men saw Jesus do, which were actually being done by the Father DWELLING IN His SON Jesus) and upholding all things by the word of His power, when he had by (Or THROUGH) himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high; (The LITERAL translation of this verse is “Who being FROM radiance of the glory and the image of the understanding of Him carrying on besides the all to the declaration of the ability of Him THROUGH himself making the cleansing of us from sin is seated at the right hand of the great togetherness, or Majesty on high or in heights.” Check it out for yourself. Here is the link to one of the websites that I use to find the LITERAL meanings of verses in question where the differing INTERPRETATIONS of verses of Scripture have caused CONTRADICTIONS to the rest of God's word. Also, the word “THINGS” is not in the original text. The ALL means us as the NEW creation of God that Jesus supports, upholds, carries, or bears the all by the power of Yahweh's word WHEN Jesus purged, BORE, or CARRIED our sins by dying on the cross. And after the cross is when Jesus was gloried with the glory OF his God and Father and then highly exalted to sit down by the right hand of Almighty God Yahweh in heaven. Verse 3 has nothing to do with Jesus upholding the entire universe by the power of his own word. It was Jesus alone by himself who BORE our sins and NOT that we bear our own sins. The word “WHEN” here in this verse, is when Jesus upheld the ALL or carried the ALL by the power of Yahweh's word as being WHEN Jesus purged our SINS. And after that Jesus was GIVEN the divine nature of immortality to BECOME “a” God under his God and Father to rule for Yahweh while He rests on the seventh 1000 year long day of the LORD where his Lord and King reigns FOR him during this yet future 1000 years)

4. Being MADE so much BETTER than the angels, as he has BY INHERITANCE OBTAINED a more excellent NAME than they. (As I have said many times in other studies I have written on the subject of exposing the ERROR of INTERPRETATION of those teaching the doctrine of the Trinity, everything Jesus is or has, was GIVEN TO him BY his God and Father THE ALMIGHTY. But what I want you to see right now is that the writer of Hebrews INTENTION of chapter 1 is to COMPARE the SON OF God to the ANGELS)

5. For unto (The writer of Hebrews way to let us know that he is changing subjects. For unto) which of the ANGELS said HE (Yahweh the Father) at ANY TIME, You are my Son, THIS DAY have I begotten you? (Speaking of a SPECIFIC point is time that Almighty God BECAME the FATHER of His SON. Thus, showing beyond any shadow of a doubt that Jesus as the SON OF Almighty God did indeed have a BEGINNING. Please read the study DID JESUS HAVE A BEGINNING? for more Scripture proving that Jesus did not eternally pre-exist WITH God from all eternity past never having a beginning, The writer of Hebrews quote ANOTHER vers from the Old Testament in 1 Chronicle to further show that the Son was PROPHESIED into existence BY Yahweh) And again, I WILL BE to him a Father, and he SHALL BE to me a Son? (Again, showing that Jesus as the SON OF Almighty God did indeed have a BEGINNING. And also showing that Almighty God was NOT ALWAYS the FATHER OF His SON, Jesus, because Jesus did NOT ALWAYS EXIST as the SON OF God WITH the Father from all the eternity past being co-eternal with the Father as the doctrine of the Trinity falsely teaches. But rather, the SON OF God was brought into existence where he never existed before EXCEPT in the MIND and PLAN of Almighty God to one day at the APPOINTED time to bring forth a human SON into the world by His spoken WORD or SAYING of God whom He would highly exalt to become “a” God under Him. John 1:1 does NOT say that JESUS was with God, but rather, that the “logos” or the word was with God. Please read the study “JOHN 1:1 THE WORD WAS GOD!” for a deeper understanding of the true sound Biblical meaning of John 1:1-14)

6. And again, find the verse that is being quoted when He brings in the first begotten into the world, (The Greek word translated as “brings in” also means when Yahweh INTRODUCES His firstborn whom He highly exalted to be His King of kings and Lord of lords to the world at the return of Jesus. The LITERAL translation of this phrase is WHENEVER YET AGAIN he brings the FIRSTBORN into the BEING HOMED meaning the FIRST begotten from the dead being brought BACK into the world to INHERIT and inhabit, speaking of the SECOND coming of Jesus to rule and reign in the world to come) HE (Almighty God the Father) says, And let all the angels of God WORSHIP him. (Again, showing the HIGH EXALTATION of Jesus be CROWNED after the cross as Lord and King OVER the angels or the Elohim translated as gods in Psalm 97:7 which is what the writer of Hebrews is quoting. Please read Psalm 97:7 “Confounded be all they that serve graven images, that boast themselves of idols: worship him, all you gods.” Or worship him all of you ANGELS. The angels are also called Elohim which is translated as God, god, and gods. You see, the FIRST estate of Jesus during the days of his FLESH was made at first to be LOWER and inferior to the angels. But AFTER the cross Jesus was CROWNED with glory and honor to become an Elohim ABOVE the Elohim. Know you not that WE shall become Elohim to JUDGE the fallen angels? WHY? Why did Yahweh choose to create humans lower and inferior to the angels? The short answer is so that the Son of MAN living without sin could be God’s just cause or EVIDENCE to destroy Satan and the fallen angels in the lake of fire on the final Day of Judgment. Please read the study “UNDERSTANDING WHY?” to find the SOUND BIBLICAL answer of why God even created mankind in the first place. And also, why God created a NEW creation of human beings LOWER or inferior to His previous creation, the angels. If you do not already know why you are here and why God allows evil in the world then please read the studies under the heading >>>WHY ARE WE HERE?-IS GOD AT WAR?<<<)

7. And of the ANGELS He says, (Or YET of the Angels He says. Please notice that ADDED words AND of the ANGELS He says which were added by the writer of Hebrews quoting Psalm to let us know that he is changing subjects as to who he is referring to) Who makes His angels spirits, and His ministers a flame of fire. (Showing that the angels will serve Jesus and his fellow HEIRS with Jesus. Have you ever wondered WHY the ANGELS desire to look into the salvation of human beings who are inferior to them? Please read the study “Why was Jesus SEEN of ANGELS in 1 Timothy 3:16?” when I get it done)

8. But unto the Son HE says, (Here again, the writer of Hebrews ADDS the words “But unto the Son, HE says” to let us know that he is changing subjects as to who he is referring to. You see, IF the writer of Hebrews simply quoted Scripture after Scripture from different places in the Old Testament WITHOUT letting us know that he was changing subjects BETWEEN each quoted Scripture, then we would have no idea what he is teaching us. So he added these words here in verse 8 to let us know that the Father is now talking to the Son and Yahweh is no longer talking about the angels. So then, unto His Son Jesus Almighty God the Father says) Your throne, O God, is forever and ever: a scepter of righteousness is the scepter of your kingdom. (This is speaking of Almighty God the Father HIGHLY EXALTING His human Son Jesus to become an Elohim or “a” God to rule and reign in his Father's NAME on his Father's throne in his Father’s kingdom during the Millennium. Please read 1 Corinthians 15:19-28 which teaches us that Jesus will REIGN in his Father's kingdom for 1000 years and then at the end of this 1000 year reign Jesus will commit the kingdom BACK into his Father's hand The Greek words translated as forever and ever literally mean from one age to another age. In other words, from the end of this present world to the beginning of the eternal age after the Millennial reign of Jesus. The kingdom itself is eternal but the REIGN of Jesus is only for an AGE of 1000 years.) 

9. You have loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; THEREFORE (Or for the very reason that you have loved righteousness and hated iniquity or sin which was DURING the days of his FLESH) God, EVEN YOUR GOD, has ANOINTED you with the oil of gladness above your fellows. (God is the HEAD of Jesus and Jesus is the HEAD of us his church, according to 1 Corinthians 11:3.  Again, the word THEREFORE means FOR this very REASON of having loved righteousness to live without sin by becoming obedient even obedient unto death on the cross to do all your God and Father's will, I even YOUR God has HIGHLY EXALTED you and have GIVEN you a NAME ABOVE every other name. Please read Philippians 2:8-11 which teaches us that it was only AFTER Jesus became OBEDIENT unto death on the cross that his God and Father the Almighty highly exalted His human Son Jesus to be MADE Lord to be seated at His own right hand to rule and reign as a God in his Father's kingdom)

10. And, You, Lord,  (Again, we see the ADDED words by the writer of Hebrews to let us know that he is quoting a DIFFERENT passage of Scripture and that he is CHANGING SUBJECT as to who he is referring to. In other words, the writer of Hebrews is CHANGING from the Father talking TO His Son to the Son praying TO his God and Father at the time of the crucifixion that if there is any other way to accomplish your Will other than cutting off my life in the middle of my life when Your life is eternal then please let me live if there is another way. Nevertheless, not my Will but your Will be done, according to Luke 22:42. Read Psalm verse 24 again which is a PROPHECY Jesus praying TO his God in the future in the garden of Gethsemane saying, O my God or YET You Lord) in the beginning, have laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of your hands: (Now, the CONTEXT of Psalm 102 does NOT teach us that the writer of Hebrews ever INTENDED his quoting Psalm 102:25-27 in the following three verses to mean that Jesus the SON OF Almighty God the Father is the creator of all things. Again, some Christians may still wonder WHY does it SEEM that the phrase “AND YOU Lord” is referring back to the SON in the previous verses 8 and 9? Well, again, the original text uses DIFFERENT Greek words that to the Greek-speaking people mean different things. In the English language, we also use the same word that can mean many different things but we know by the CONTEXT what that word means. I think you will all understand that when I say the word “bow” you do not know what I mean by that word without giving you any CONTEXT because that one word has several meanings. It can mean a bow and arrow. It can mean a bow on a package, It can mean the bow of a ship. It can also mean to bow down. So the only way to know for sure what is meant by a word is by the CONTEXT. And the same is true in Greek. DIFFERENT Greek words are used along with the CONTEXT so that it will be clear what is being intended. In other words, the English word “AND” here in verse 10, is translated from the Greek word “KAI” which is used as a conjunction to introduce a DIFFERENT subject or another COMPARISON between the SON and the ANGELS. To say this another way, the writer of Hebrews is COMPARING the ANGELS to Jesus being highly exalted to become God's ETERNAL SON. And each time the writer of Hebrews INTRODUCES the NEW point he makes in his comparison between the angels and the Son, he uses the Greek word “KAI”. And then within each point, he uses the Greek word “DE” that is translated as BUT, such as, BUT to which of the ANGELS. The writer of Hebrews INTRODUCES the first NEW point in verse 7, after the first six verses glorifying the Son of God as being made in the express image of God. If you need to, please scroll back up and notice the changing back and forth and each time the writer INTRODUCES a NEW point with the Greek word “KAI” that is translated as “AND, and the Greek word “DE” translated as “BUT” below in verse 13. The writer of Hebrew ADDED these words that are NOT a part of the quote of the Scriptures)

11. They shall perish, but you remain, and they all shall wax old as does a garment;

12. And as a vesture shall you fold them up, and they shall be changed: but you are the same, and your years shall not fail. 

13. BUT to which of the ANGELS said HE (Speaking of Almighty God the Father) at ANY TIME, Sit on my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool?

14. Are they (STILL YET Speaking of the ANGELS), not all ministering spirits, sent forth to minister FOR them who shall be HEIRS of salvation?”

 

Now, imagine if the writer of Hebrew did NOT add the words, “ BUT to which of the ANGELS said HE at ANY TIME,” to verse 13 and simply quoted the Old Testament Scripture. “Sit on my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool?” and one INTERPRETS verses 10-12 as being Jesus. Those verses would then read as follows.

 

Hebrews 1:9-14 WITHOUT the ADDED words of the original writer of Hebrews in verse 13.

 

You (Speaking of Jesus) have loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore, God, even YOUR God, (Speaking of Almighty God Yahweh as being the God and Father OF Jesus) has anointed you with the oil of gladness above your fellows. (Or your partners in your inheritance) 

10.  And, You, Lord, (Using the Trinitarian INTERPRETATION that the words, You, Lord are referring to Jesus which would then read as and you, Jesus) in the beginning have laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of Your hands: 

11.  They shall perish, but you remain, and they all shall wax old as doth a garment; 

12.  And as a vesture shall You fold them up, and they shall be changed: but You are the same, and Your years shall not fail. 

13. ... Sit on my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool?”

 

Without the writer of Hebrews ADDING those words BETWEEN each quote lets us know that he is CHANGING subject as to who he is referring to with each different quote of Scripture it sounds as if Jesus is speaking to Jesus to sit at his own right hand until Jesus makes the enemies of Jesus the footstool of Jesus. We all agree that the pronouns “my” and “I” are referring to Yahweh, the FATHER. And all Christians, except for Oneness Pentecostal Christians, know beyond any shadow of a doubt that Jesus is NOT the Father. 

Now, who would know who Jesus truly is, the Roman Catholic Church that formed the doctrine of the Trinity that took over three centuries or the very Apostles of Jesus? To me, the very Apostles of Jesus would know who Jesus TRULY is better than anyone else except for Jesus himself and his God and Father. So let us see who the Apostles of Jesus say that Jesus is.

 

Please read Hebrews 1:5-10.

 

“For unto the angels has He NOT put in subjection the world to come, whereof we speak. (But rather, Yahweh anointed the Son of MAN, Jesus, that was made inferior to the angels to be the RULER of the world to come)

6.  But one in a certain place testified, saying, What is man, that You art mindful of him? Or the son of man, that You VISIT him? (The writer of Hebrew is quoting from the Old Testament which is a PROPHECY speaking of Yahweh VISITING the CHILD, Jesus. Morning by morning to teach him that the Scripture speaks of him as being the Messiah or the Savior prophesied to come. And the ANGELS are wondering why God is visiting an inferior species of being called the humans)

7.  You made him a little lower than the angels; (And then AFTER the cross) You crowned him with glory and honor, and (You) did SET him over the works of Your hands

8.  YOU have put all things in subjection under his feet. For in that He put all in subjection under him, He left nothing that is not put under him. But now (Or but at this present time) we see NOT YET all things put under him

9.  But WE see Jesus, (Speaking of the writer of Hebrews and the very Apostles of Jesus who were eyewitnesses see Jesus) who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honor; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man. 

10.  For it became Him, for whom are all things, and by whom are all things, in bringing many sons unto glory, to make the captain of their salvation PERFECT through sufferings.” 

 

So then, since the very Apostles of Jesus did NOT see Jesus as being Almighty God Himself the I myself must believe what Jesus and his Apostles teach and reject the man-made doctrines of Oneness, the Trinity, and the Deity of Jesus during the days of his FLESH. Now, I do believe that Jesus BECAME a Deity AFTER the cross. And PERHAPS the early church Christians who were on the side of the Trinity were arguing that Jesus was God AFTER the cross. For you see, one of the first confessions of faith is True God FROM true God. And to me, that could only mean that Jesus came into existence out FROM the TRUE God to become a true God to rule FOR Yahweh who MADE His human Son to become Lord, according to Acts 2:36.

 

Acts 2:36.

 

“Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God has MADE that same Jesus, whom you have crucified, both Lord and Christ.”

 

And to ME, the one MADE Lord or made a God BY Yahweh Himself can NOT be Yahweh Himself. If you understand that the word “God” is a TITLE and that Almighty God the Father is THE God OF Gods that He Himself MADE to become God under and subject to Him then you should be able to see John 1:1 as a PROPHECY of “A” God coming into existence to be “A” God under and subject to his God and Father the ONLY TRUE God.

Thanks for reading and may God bless you richly as you continue to seek the TRUTH of the WHOLE word of Almighty God. Below are some other verses that are used to try and support the doctrine of the Trinity, the doctrine of Oneness, and the two nature at the same tome doctrine of the Deity of Jesus. There may be other verses which you may be having trouble seeing any other way than what you were dogmatically taught over and over for so long, but I assure you that each and every verse used by those who teach the doctrine of the Trinity and the other two doctrines do indeed have a different meaning that does NOT CONTRADICT any other part of God's word. If there is a verse that I have not listed please do not hesitate to write to me and let me know. Some verses are included in other studies and they may not appear as an individual study.

 

Your brother in our Lord Jesus Christ,

Brother Mark.

 

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AmatterOfTruth.com

 

VERSES USED TO TEACH THAT JESUS PREEXISTED!

Here is a link that will give you links to all the studies that I have written on every verse of Scripture that I have been made aware of that are used to teach that Jesus pre-existed and to try and prove the doctrine of the Trinity.

>>>VERSES USED TO TEACH THAT JESUS PRE-EXISTED!<<<

Simply click on the link and then scroll down to find the verse of Scripture that you would like to study to learn its true sound Biblical meaning when it is correctly interpreted in the LIGHT of the WHOLE word of Almighty God. And then click on that link to read the study on that particular verse of Scripture. 

Thanks for reading and may God bless you richly as you continue seeking the truth of the whole word of God.

Your brother in our Lord Jesus Christ,

Brother Mark.

 

RETURN TO HOMEPAGE

AT

AMatterOfTruth.com